Test no 14
9th cbse
Test no 8
10th
10th cbse juniors test no 8
1.50 cm tall object is at a very large distance from a diverging lens. A virtual, erect and diminished image of the object is formed at a distance of 20 cm in front of the lens. How much is the focal length of the lens?
2.A concave lens of focal length 15 cm forms an image 10 cm from the lens. How far is the object placed from the lens? Draw the ray diagram.
3. An object 60 cm from a lens gives a virtual image at a distance of 20 cm in front of the lens. What is the focal length of the lens? Is the lens converging or diverging? Give reasons for your answer.
.4. A concave lens of 20 cm focal length forms an image 15 cm from the lens. Compute the object distance.
.5. A concave lens has focal length 15 cm. At what distance should the object from the lens be placed so that it forms an image at 10 cm from the lens? Also find the magnification produced by the lens.
6. 0 to 10 3
10 to 20 4
20 to 30 10
30 to 40. 2
Find mean median mode
7.0 to 20. 2
20 to 40. 3
40 to 50. 5
50 to 60. 2
Draw mixed graph
8.0 to 30. 2
30 to 60. X
60 to 90. 6
90 to 120. 2
Median 67.5 find x
9.0 to 40 2
40 to 80. 5
80 to 120. 3
120 to 160. 2
Convert to less than class interval
And more than class intervals
Separtely
10differentiate 2x.sinx
9th cbse test no 3
1.what are factors effe tin evaporation
Explain
2.what 4 differences between boiling and evaporation
3.define
Melting
Boiling
Condensation
Solidification and
sublimation
4.differqntiate 2x.sinx
5.insert 10 rational numbers between 2/3 and 3/4
6.do succesive magnification of 2.3456
7.check termination or non terminating.
In case terminating convert into decimal without division
11/12 and. 15/1600 and 13/3125
8.check whether
4 power n
6 power n
10 power n
Ends with zero or not
Explain with reason
9.convert 2.1345 bar on 45 only into rational number
10.proove root 3 plus 1 irrational
.
1.50 cm tall object is at a very large distance from a diverging lens. A virtual, erect and diminished image of the object is formed at a distance of 20 cm in front of the lens. How much is the focal length of the lens?
2.A concave lens of focal length 15 cm forms an image 10 cm from the lens. How far is the object placed from the lens? Draw the ray diagram.
3. An object 60 cm from a lens gives a virtual image at a distance of 20 cm in front of the lens. What is the focal length of the lens? Is the lens converging or diverging? Give reasons for your answer.
.4. A concave lens of 20 cm focal length forms an image 15 cm from the lens. Compute the object distance.
.5. A concave lens has focal length 15 cm. At what distance should the object from the lens be placed so that it forms an image at 10 cm from the lens? Also find the magnification produced by the lens.
6. 0 to 10 3
10 to 20 4
20 to 30 10
30 to 40. 2
Find mean median mode
7.0 to 20. 2
20 to 40. 3
40 to 50. 5
50 to 60. 2
Draw mixed graph
8.0 to 30. 2
30 to 60. X
60 to 90. 6
90 to 120. 2
Median 67.5 find x
9.0 to 40 2
40 to 80. 5
80 to 120. 3
120 to 160. 2
Convert to less than class interval
And more than class intervals
Separtely
10differentiate 2x.sinx
9th cbse test no 3
1.what are factors effe tin evaporation
Explain
2.what 4 differences between boiling and evaporation
3.define
Melting
Boiling
Condensation
Solidification and
sublimation
4.differqntiate 2x.sinx
5.insert 10 rational numbers between 2/3 and 3/4
6.do succesive magnification of 2.3456
7.check termination or non terminating.
In case terminating convert into decimal without division
11/12 and. 15/1600 and 13/3125
8.check whether
4 power n
6 power n
10 power n
Ends with zero or not
Explain with reason
9.convert 2.1345 bar on 45 only into rational number
10.proove root 3 plus 1 irrational
.
Test no 7 sqturday April 30tg 2022
10th cbse
Test no 7 10th cbse Saturday April 2022
Test no 7 10th cbse Saturday April 30
.1.draw convex lens ray diagrams
6x3=18marks
2.concave lens both ray diagrams
2x3=6 marks
3.draw less than ogive and find median and verify with formula
0 to 10. 4
10 to 20. 5
20 to 30. 3
30 to 40. 2
40 to 50. 1
50 to 60. 2
4.draw more than ogive and find median and verify with formula
0 to 30. 4
30 to 60. 3
60 to 90. 2
90 to 120. 6
120 to 150. 2
150 to 180. 1
5.draw mixed ogiveand find median and verify with formula
0 to 20. 5
20 to 40. 3
40 to 60. 2
60 to 80. 4
80 to 100. 2
100 to 120. 3
6.find median
0 to 40. 2
40 to 80. 3
80 to 120. 5
120 to 160. 2
160 to 200. 1
7.differentiate 2x-3 whole cube 6 marks
.1.draw convex lens ray diagrams
6x3=18marks
2.concave lens both ray diagrams
2x3=6 marks
3.draw less than ogive and find median and verify with formula
0 to 10. 4
10 to 20. 5
20 to 30. 3
30 to 40. 2
40 to 50. 1
50 to 60. 2
4.draw more than ogive and find median and verify with formula
0 to 30. 4
30 to 60. 3
60 to 90. 2
90 to 120. 6
120 to 150. 2
150 to 180. 1
5.draw mixed ogiveand find median and verify with formula
0 to 20. 5
20 to 40. 3
40 to 60. 2
60 to 80. 4
80 to 100. 2
100 to 120. 3
6.find median
0 to 40. 2
40 to 80. 3
80 to 120. 5
120 to 160. 2
160 to 200. 1
7.differentiate 2x-3 whole cube 6 marks
9th cbse paper
Test no 1 9th cbse april30 2022
1.differntiate 2x-3 whole square
2.find the heat required to raise the temperature of 5gms of substance from 10 deg c to 20 deg cif specific heat of substance is 5j/gm deg c
3.find the specific heat of substance if 100 joules of heat is neede to raise the tgemperature of substance from 30c to 40c of 10 grams of substace
4.find final temperature attained if 5 gms of substance requires 1000j of energy whose specific heat is 20j/gm c .whose intial temperature is 25c
5.find intial temperature if 500j of energy is needed to raise the temptarure of substance to 25c whose mass is 10gms
6.covert 1.2 bar only on 2 into p/form
7.covert 2.345 bar only on 5 into p/q form
8.prove root7 irrational
9..check whether termination or non terminating give reasons for your answer
17/8
64/455
29/343
10.check whether termination or non terminating give reasons for your answer
15/1600
13/3125
Test no 5
10th juniors
8th class April 9th test Saturday
Test no 4
10th cbse
8th class Sunday March 27
Test no 8th cbse
Trapeziums
The length of the parallel sides of a trapezium is in the ratio 10: 13 and the distance between them is 25 cm. If the area of trapezium is 655 cm², find the length of the parallel sides.
2. Calculate the area of a trapezium whose parallel sides are 15 cm, 22 cm, and the distance between them is 26 cm.
3. Find the area of a trapezium whose parallel sides are 32 cm and 27 cm, and the distance between them is 15 cm.
4. The area of a trapezium is 459 cm². Its parallel sides are in the ratio 7 : 10 and the perpendicular distance between them is 9 cm. Find the length of each of the parallel sides.
5. The area of a trapezium is 150 cm² and its height is 5 cm. If one of the parallel sides is longer than the other by 6 cm, find the two parallel sides.
6. The area of a trapezium is 180 cm² and its height is 8 cm. If one of the parallel sides is 1.5 times the other side, find the two parallel sides.
7. The area of a trapezium is 560 cm². If the lengths of its parallel sides are 25 cm and 32 cm, find the distance between them.
8. The area of a trapezium is 1200 cm² and the distance between its parallel sides is 12 cm. If one of the parallel sides is 84 cm, find the other.
9. The parallel sides of a trapezium are 35 cm and 20 cm. Its nonparallel sides are both equal, each being 15 cm. Find the area of the trapezium.
10. ABCD is a trapezium in which AB= CD, AD = DC, AB = 16 cm, BC = 12 cm and DC = 22 cm. Find the area of the trapezium.
Manwitha test paper herons formula
. Find the area of a triangle whose sides are 12 cm, 6 cm and 15 cm.
2. Find the area of a triangle whose sides are 4.5 cm and 10 cm and perimeter 10.5 cm.
3. A park in the shape of a quadrilateral ABCD has C = 90°. AB = 18 m, BC = 24 m, CD = 10 m and AD = 16 m. How much area does it occupy?
4. Find the area of a triangle with base =20cm and height are 10 cm.
5. Find the area of a triangle having perimeter 32cm. One side of its side is equal to 11cm and difference of the other two is 5cm.
6. Perimeter of the rhombus is 100 m and its diagonal is 40m. Find the area of rhombus.
7. Two parallel sides of a trapezium are 60 cm and 77 cm and other sides are 25 cm and 26 cm. Find the area of trapezium.
8. The perimeter of a triangular field is 135 cm and its sides are in the ratio 25 : 17 : 12. Find its area.
9. The perimeter of a square is (4x+20)cm. What will be the length of its diagonal?
10. If area of the hexagon is 24√3cm2, find its perimeter
Sushanth and
Squares and square roots
1.find square of 32 by (a+b)^2
2.39 by (a-b)^2
3.42 by column method
4.43 by diagonal method
5.find square toot of 256 by prime factorisation method
6.find root by pf method 1296
7.2025 by pf method
8.102 by diagnol method
9.78 by column method
10.2.3 by (a+b)^2
Trapeziums
The length of the parallel sides of a trapezium is in the ratio 10: 13 and the distance between them is 25 cm. If the area of trapezium is 655 cm², find the length of the parallel sides.
2. Calculate the area of a trapezium whose parallel sides are 15 cm, 22 cm, and the distance between them is 26 cm.
3. Find the area of a trapezium whose parallel sides are 32 cm and 27 cm, and the distance between them is 15 cm.
4. The area of a trapezium is 459 cm². Its parallel sides are in the ratio 7 : 10 and the perpendicular distance between them is 9 cm. Find the length of each of the parallel sides.
5. The area of a trapezium is 150 cm² and its height is 5 cm. If one of the parallel sides is longer than the other by 6 cm, find the two parallel sides.
6. The area of a trapezium is 180 cm² and its height is 8 cm. If one of the parallel sides is 1.5 times the other side, find the two parallel sides.
7. The area of a trapezium is 560 cm². If the lengths of its parallel sides are 25 cm and 32 cm, find the distance between them.
8. The area of a trapezium is 1200 cm² and the distance between its parallel sides is 12 cm. If one of the parallel sides is 84 cm, find the other.
9. The parallel sides of a trapezium are 35 cm and 20 cm. Its nonparallel sides are both equal, each being 15 cm. Find the area of the trapezium.
10. ABCD is a trapezium in which AB= CD, AD = DC, AB = 16 cm, BC = 12 cm and DC = 22 cm. Find the area of the trapezium.
Manwitha test paper herons formula
. Find the area of a triangle whose sides are 12 cm, 6 cm and 15 cm.
2. Find the area of a triangle whose sides are 4.5 cm and 10 cm and perimeter 10.5 cm.
3. A park in the shape of a quadrilateral ABCD has C = 90°. AB = 18 m, BC = 24 m, CD = 10 m and AD = 16 m. How much area does it occupy?
4. Find the area of a triangle with base =20cm and height are 10 cm.
5. Find the area of a triangle having perimeter 32cm. One side of its side is equal to 11cm and difference of the other two is 5cm.
6. Perimeter of the rhombus is 100 m and its diagonal is 40m. Find the area of rhombus.
7. Two parallel sides of a trapezium are 60 cm and 77 cm and other sides are 25 cm and 26 cm. Find the area of trapezium.
8. The perimeter of a triangular field is 135 cm and its sides are in the ratio 25 : 17 : 12. Find its area.
9. The perimeter of a square is (4x+20)cm. What will be the length of its diagonal?
10. If area of the hexagon is 24√3cm2, find its perimeter
Sushanth and
Squares and square roots
1.find square of 32 by (a+b)^2
2.39 by (a-b)^2
3.42 by column method
4.43 by diagonal method
5.find square toot of 256 by prime factorisation method
6.find root by pf method 1296
7.2025 by pf method
8.102 by diagnol method
9.78 by column method
10.2.3 by (a+b)^2
Test no 3
10th cbse juniors Sunday March 20
Polynomials and chemical reactions
1.two zeroes of the polynomial x4-6x3-26x2+138x-35 are 2 ±√3, find other
2.If the zeroes of the polynomial x3-3x2+x+1 are a – b, a, a + b, find a and
3.Find a cubic polynomial with the sum, sum of the product of its zeroes taken two at a time, and the product of its zeroes as 2, –7, –14 respectively.
⁷4.On dividing x3-3x2+x+2 by a polynomial g(x), the quotient and remainder were x–2 and –2x+4, respectively. Find g(x).
5.Obtain all other zeroes of 3x4+6x3-2x2-10x-5, if two of its zeroes are √(5/3) and – √(5/3).
6.Find a quadratic polynomial each with the given numbers as the sum and product of its zeroes respectively.
(i) 1/4 , -1
7.Find the zeroes of the following quadratic polynomials and verify the relationship between the zeroes and the coefficients.
4u2+8u
8.Find the zeroes of the following quadratic polynomials and verify the relationship between the zeroes and the coefficients.
t^2–15
9.find different types of oxidation and examples
10.Zn (s) + CuSO4 (aq) → ZnSO4 (aq) + Cu (s)
In the reaction which Is
Oxidized
Reduced
Oxidising agent
Reducing agent
Polynomials and chemical reactions
1.two zeroes of the polynomial x4-6x3-26x2+138x-35 are 2 ±√3, find other
2.If the zeroes of the polynomial x3-3x2+x+1 are a – b, a, a + b, find a and
3.Find a cubic polynomial with the sum, sum of the product of its zeroes taken two at a time, and the product of its zeroes as 2, –7, –14 respectively.
⁷4.On dividing x3-3x2+x+2 by a polynomial g(x), the quotient and remainder were x–2 and –2x+4, respectively. Find g(x).
5.Obtain all other zeroes of 3x4+6x3-2x2-10x-5, if two of its zeroes are √(5/3) and – √(5/3).
6.Find a quadratic polynomial each with the given numbers as the sum and product of its zeroes respectively.
(i) 1/4 , -1
7.Find the zeroes of the following quadratic polynomials and verify the relationship between the zeroes and the coefficients.
4u2+8u
8.Find the zeroes of the following quadratic polynomials and verify the relationship between the zeroes and the coefficients.
t^2–15
9.find different types of oxidation and examples
10.Zn (s) + CuSO4 (aq) → ZnSO4 (aq) + Cu (s)
In the reaction which Is
Oxidized
Reduced
Oxidising agent
Reducing agent
Test no 2 10th juniors
8th cbse
Cyclic 4 maths circles
Test no 1
10th cbse 2022 2023 March 6
Polynomials and chemical reactions
Feb 24 Science Carbon compounds 2nd cyclic tet
Feb 21/2022 nd Cyclic maths
Quadratic equations
Feb 16th 1st Cyclic science exam
40 marks periodic classification
Feb 14th 1st Cyclic test maths applications and statistics 40 marks 2 hrs exam
All the best
Key is in key link heck later
Test no 7
8th class test no 7 feb 6th compound interest
.1. Find the amount and the compound interest on $ 2500 for 2 years at 10% per annum, compounded annually.
2. Find the amount and the compound interest on $ 16000 for 3 years at 5% per annum, compounded annually.
3. Find the difference between the simple interest and the compound interest on $ 5000 for 2 years at 6% per annum.
4. Roby obtained a loan of $ 25000 from the Syndicate Bank to renovate her house. If the rate of interest is 8% per annum, what amount will she have to pay to the bank after 2 years to discharge her debt?
5. Henna borrowed $ 20000 from her friend Nancy at 12% per annum simple Interest. She lent it to Andy at the same rate but compounded annually. Find her gain after 2 years.
6. Mike deposited a sum of $ 64000 in a post office for 3 years, compounded annually at 7¹/₂ % per annum. What amount will he get on maturity?
7. David deposited a sum of $ 6250 in the ICICI Bank for 1 year, compounded half-yearly at 8% per annum. Find the compound interest he gets.
8. Mike borrowed $ 16000 from a finance company at 10% per annum, compounded half-yearly. What amount of money will discharge his debt after 1¹/₂ years?
9. Andy obtained a loan of $ 125000 from the Allahabad Bank for buying computers. The bank charges compound interest at 8% per annum, compounded annually. What amount will he have to pay after 3 years to clear the debt?
10. Three years ago, Brandon purchased a buffalo from Sam for $ 11000. What payment will discharge his debt now, the rate of interest being 10% per annum, compounded annually?
10th cbse test no 7 progressions Feb 6
1. Check whether -160 is a term of the A.P. 11, 8, 5, 2, …
2. A small terrace at a football ground comprises of 16 steps each of which is 50 m long and built of solid concrete. Each step has a rise of 1 .5 m and a tread of 1 .6 m. (see Fig. 5.8). Calculate the total volume of concrete required to build the terrace.
3.The houses of a row are numbered consecutively from 1 to 49. Show that there is a value of x such that the sum of the numbers of the houses preceding the house numbered x is equal to the sum of the numbers of the houses following it. Find this value of x.
4.ladder has rungs 25 cm apart.. The rungs decrease uniformly in length from 45 cm at the bottom to 25 cm at the top. If the top and the bottom rungs are 5m apart, what is the length of the wood required for the rungs?
5.The sum of the third and the seventh terms of an AP is 6 and their product is 8. Find the sum of first sixteen terms of the AP.
6.Which term of the AP: 121, 117, 113, . . ., is its last positive term find its value ?
7. In a potato race, a bucket is placed at the starting point, which is 6 m from the first potato and other potatoes are placed 5 m apart in a straight line. There are ten potatoes in the line.
8.200 logs are stacked in the following manner: 20 logs in the bottom row, 19 in the next row, 18 in the row next to it and so on. In how many rows are the 200 logs placed and how many logs are in the top row?
9. A spiral is made up of successive 18 semicircles, with centres alternately at A and B, starting with centre at A of radii 0.5, 1.0 cm, 1.5 cm, 2.0 cm, ……… as shown in figure. What is the total length of 18 such a spiral made up of thirteen consecutive semicircles
10. If the sum of the first n terms of an AP is 5n^2+3n , what is the first term (that is S1)? What is the sum of first two terms? What is the second term? Similarly find the 3rd, the10th and the nth terms.
.1. Find the amount and the compound interest on $ 2500 for 2 years at 10% per annum, compounded annually.
2. Find the amount and the compound interest on $ 16000 for 3 years at 5% per annum, compounded annually.
3. Find the difference between the simple interest and the compound interest on $ 5000 for 2 years at 6% per annum.
4. Roby obtained a loan of $ 25000 from the Syndicate Bank to renovate her house. If the rate of interest is 8% per annum, what amount will she have to pay to the bank after 2 years to discharge her debt?
5. Henna borrowed $ 20000 from her friend Nancy at 12% per annum simple Interest. She lent it to Andy at the same rate but compounded annually. Find her gain after 2 years.
6. Mike deposited a sum of $ 64000 in a post office for 3 years, compounded annually at 7¹/₂ % per annum. What amount will he get on maturity?
7. David deposited a sum of $ 6250 in the ICICI Bank for 1 year, compounded half-yearly at 8% per annum. Find the compound interest he gets.
8. Mike borrowed $ 16000 from a finance company at 10% per annum, compounded half-yearly. What amount of money will discharge his debt after 1¹/₂ years?
9. Andy obtained a loan of $ 125000 from the Allahabad Bank for buying computers. The bank charges compound interest at 8% per annum, compounded annually. What amount will he have to pay after 3 years to clear the debt?
10. Three years ago, Brandon purchased a buffalo from Sam for $ 11000. What payment will discharge his debt now, the rate of interest being 10% per annum, compounded annually?
10th cbse test no 7 progressions Feb 6
1. Check whether -160 is a term of the A.P. 11, 8, 5, 2, …
2. A small terrace at a football ground comprises of 16 steps each of which is 50 m long and built of solid concrete. Each step has a rise of 1 .5 m and a tread of 1 .6 m. (see Fig. 5.8). Calculate the total volume of concrete required to build the terrace.
3.The houses of a row are numbered consecutively from 1 to 49. Show that there is a value of x such that the sum of the numbers of the houses preceding the house numbered x is equal to the sum of the numbers of the houses following it. Find this value of x.
4.ladder has rungs 25 cm apart.. The rungs decrease uniformly in length from 45 cm at the bottom to 25 cm at the top. If the top and the bottom rungs are 5m apart, what is the length of the wood required for the rungs?
5.The sum of the third and the seventh terms of an AP is 6 and their product is 8. Find the sum of first sixteen terms of the AP.
6.Which term of the AP: 121, 117, 113, . . ., is its last positive term find its value ?
7. In a potato race, a bucket is placed at the starting point, which is 6 m from the first potato and other potatoes are placed 5 m apart in a straight line. There are ten potatoes in the line.
8.200 logs are stacked in the following manner: 20 logs in the bottom row, 19 in the next row, 18 in the row next to it and so on. In how many rows are the 200 logs placed and how many logs are in the top row?
9. A spiral is made up of successive 18 semicircles, with centres alternately at A and B, starting with centre at A of radii 0.5, 1.0 cm, 1.5 cm, 2.0 cm, ……… as shown in figure. What is the total length of 18 such a spiral made up of thirteen consecutive semicircles
10. If the sum of the first n terms of an AP is 5n^2+3n , what is the first term (that is S1)? What is the sum of first two terms? What is the second term? Similarly find the 3rd, the10th and the nth terms.
9th paper
8th paper
10th paper
Test no 6 9th cbse 2022 jan30
Test no 6
8th cbse test no 6 Jan 30 2022
1. A can do a piece of work in 24 days while B can do it in 30 days. In how many days can they complete it, if they work together?
2. A can do a piece of work in 15 hours while B can do it in 12 hours. How long will both take to do it, working together?
3. A and B, working together can finish a piece of work in 6 days, while A alone can do it in 9 days. How much time will B alone take to finish it?
4. Two motor mechanics, Ron and Sam, working together can overhaul a scooter in 6 hours. Ron alone can do the job in 15 hours. In how many hours, can Sam alone do it?
. A, B and C can do a piece of work in 8 days, 12 days and 15 days respectively. How long will they take to finish it if they work together?
6. A can do a piece of work in 6 hours while B alone can do it in 16 hours. If A, B and C working together can finish it in 8 hours, in how many hours can C alone finish the work?
7. A, B and C working together can finish a piece of work in 8 hours. A alone can do it in 20 hours and B alone can do it in 24 hours. In how many hours will C alone do the same work?
8. A and B can finish a piece of work in 6 days and 4 days respectively. A started the work and worked at it for 2 days. He was then joined by B. Find the total time taken to finish the work.
9. A can do a piece of work in 14 days while B can do it in 21 days. They began together and worked at it for 7 days. Then, A was not well and B had to complete the work. In how many days was the work completed?
10.draw all ray diagrams discussed concave and convex ray diagrams
1. A can do a piece of work in 24 days while B can do it in 30 days. In how many days can they complete it, if they work together?
2. A can do a piece of work in 15 hours while B can do it in 12 hours. How long will both take to do it, working together?
3. A and B, working together can finish a piece of work in 6 days, while A alone can do it in 9 days. How much time will B alone take to finish it?
4. Two motor mechanics, Ron and Sam, working together can overhaul a scooter in 6 hours. Ron alone can do the job in 15 hours. In how many hours, can Sam alone do it?
. A, B and C can do a piece of work in 8 days, 12 days and 15 days respectively. How long will they take to finish it if they work together?
6. A can do a piece of work in 6 hours while B alone can do it in 16 hours. If A, B and C working together can finish it in 8 hours, in how many hours can C alone finish the work?
7. A, B and C working together can finish a piece of work in 8 hours. A alone can do it in 20 hours and B alone can do it in 24 hours. In how many hours will C alone do the same work?
8. A and B can finish a piece of work in 6 days and 4 days respectively. A started the work and worked at it for 2 days. He was then joined by B. Find the total time taken to finish the work.
9. A can do a piece of work in 14 days while B can do it in 21 days. They began together and worked at it for 7 days. Then, A was not well and B had to complete the work. In how many days was the work completed?
10.draw all ray diagrams discussed concave and convex ray diagrams
Test no 6 10th cbse maths and Science jan30 2022 80 marks
Maths 40 Science 40
The end
Test no 5 10th class jan23
Test no 5 8th cbse Jan 23
Test no 5 9th cbse
Test no 4 jan 9 2022
10th cbse
Test no3
8th cbse
9th cbse
10th cbse
Test no 2 Dec 26th 2021
10th cbse 26 dec 2021 test no 2
1.In the Modern periodic table, calcium (atomic number 20) is surrounded by elements with atomic numbers 12, 19, 21 and 38. Which of these have physical and chemical properties resembling calcium?
Explain clearly reason
2.Nitrogen (atomic number 7) and phosphorus (atomic number 15) belong to group 15 of the periodic Table. Write the electronic configuration of these two elements. Which of these will be more electronegative? Why?
3.Which element has?
a.Two shells, both of which are completely filled with electrons?<
b. The electronic configuration of 2,8,2?<
c. A total of three shells, with four electrons in its valence shell?<
d. A total of two shells, with three electrons in its valence shell?<
e. Twice as many electrons in its second shell, as in its first shell?
4.Lithium, sodium, potassium are metals that react with water to liberate hydrogen. Is there any similarity in the atoms of these elements?
b. Helium is an unreactive gas and neon is a gas of extremely low reactivity. What, if anything, do their atoms have in common
5 Name two elements, which you would expect to show chemical reactions similar to magnesium. What is the basis for your choice?
6.An express train takes 1 hour less than a passenger train to travel 132 km between Mysore and Bangalore (without taking into consideration the time they stop at intermediate stations). If the average speeds of the express train is 11 km/h more than that of the passenger train, find the average speed of the two trains.
7.Two water taps together can fill a tank in 75/8 hours. The tap of larger diameter takes 10 hours less than the smaller one to fill the tank separately. Find the time in which each tap can separately fill the tank.
8. The diagonal of a rectangular field is 60 metres more than the shorter side. If the longer side is 30 metres more than the shorter side, find the sides of the field.
9.In a class test, the sum of Shefali’s marks in Mathematics and English is 30. Had she got 2 marks more in Mathematics and 3 marks less in English, the product of their marks would have been 210. Find her marks in the two subjects.
10.The sum of the reciprocals of Rehman’s ages, (in years) 3 years ago and 5 years from now is 1/3. Find his present age.
9th class test 2 dec 26/2021
1.Calculate the work done by a force of 30 N in lifting a load of 2kg to a height of 10m (g = 10ms-2)
2.An object of mass 1 kg is raised through a height h. Its potential energy is increased by 1 J. Find the height h.
3.Calculate the work done by a man in lifting a 0.5 kg box from the ground and keeping it on a shelf 2 meter high.
4.A roller is pushed with a force of 100 N along its handle, which is at an angle of 60 degrees with the horizontal. Find the work done in moving it through 20 m.
Take cos 60=1/2
5.. Certain force acting on a 20 kg mass changes its velocity from 5 m s-1 to 2 m s-1. Calculate the work done by the force.
6.expand (- 2x + 3y + 2z)^2
7.Factorise
2x^2 + y^2 + 8z^2 – 2√2xy + 4√2yz – 8xz
8. 64a^3 -27b^3 -144a^2b + 108ab^2
9.Factorise each of the following
Without actually calculating the cubes, find the value of each of the following
(- 12)3 + (7)3 + (5)3
10.Factorise 27x^3 +y^3 +z^3 -9xyz.
8th cbse test no 2 december 2021
.Use a suitable identity to get each of the following products.
1.(p - 11) (p + 11)
2. (2y + 5) (2y - 5)
3.(12a - 9) (12a +9)
4.(2a-1/2)(2a-1/2)
(5) (1.1m - 0.4) (1.1m + 0.4)
(6) (a2+ b2) (- a2+ b2)
(7) (6x - 7) (6x + 7)
(8.) (- a/2 + c/2) (- a/2 + c/2)
(9) [(p/8)+(3q/4)] [(p/8)+(3q/4)]
(10.) (3a + 9b) (3a - 9b)
1.In the Modern periodic table, calcium (atomic number 20) is surrounded by elements with atomic numbers 12, 19, 21 and 38. Which of these have physical and chemical properties resembling calcium?
Explain clearly reason
2.Nitrogen (atomic number 7) and phosphorus (atomic number 15) belong to group 15 of the periodic Table. Write the electronic configuration of these two elements. Which of these will be more electronegative? Why?
3.Which element has?
a.Two shells, both of which are completely filled with electrons?<
b. The electronic configuration of 2,8,2?<
c. A total of three shells, with four electrons in its valence shell?<
d. A total of two shells, with three electrons in its valence shell?<
e. Twice as many electrons in its second shell, as in its first shell?
4.Lithium, sodium, potassium are metals that react with water to liberate hydrogen. Is there any similarity in the atoms of these elements?
b. Helium is an unreactive gas and neon is a gas of extremely low reactivity. What, if anything, do their atoms have in common
5 Name two elements, which you would expect to show chemical reactions similar to magnesium. What is the basis for your choice?
6.An express train takes 1 hour less than a passenger train to travel 132 km between Mysore and Bangalore (without taking into consideration the time they stop at intermediate stations). If the average speeds of the express train is 11 km/h more than that of the passenger train, find the average speed of the two trains.
7.Two water taps together can fill a tank in 75/8 hours. The tap of larger diameter takes 10 hours less than the smaller one to fill the tank separately. Find the time in which each tap can separately fill the tank.
8. The diagonal of a rectangular field is 60 metres more than the shorter side. If the longer side is 30 metres more than the shorter side, find the sides of the field.
9.In a class test, the sum of Shefali’s marks in Mathematics and English is 30. Had she got 2 marks more in Mathematics and 3 marks less in English, the product of their marks would have been 210. Find her marks in the two subjects.
10.The sum of the reciprocals of Rehman’s ages, (in years) 3 years ago and 5 years from now is 1/3. Find his present age.
9th class test 2 dec 26/2021
1.Calculate the work done by a force of 30 N in lifting a load of 2kg to a height of 10m (g = 10ms-2)
2.An object of mass 1 kg is raised through a height h. Its potential energy is increased by 1 J. Find the height h.
3.Calculate the work done by a man in lifting a 0.5 kg box from the ground and keeping it on a shelf 2 meter high.
4.A roller is pushed with a force of 100 N along its handle, which is at an angle of 60 degrees with the horizontal. Find the work done in moving it through 20 m.
Take cos 60=1/2
5.. Certain force acting on a 20 kg mass changes its velocity from 5 m s-1 to 2 m s-1. Calculate the work done by the force.
6.expand (- 2x + 3y + 2z)^2
7.Factorise
2x^2 + y^2 + 8z^2 – 2√2xy + 4√2yz – 8xz
8. 64a^3 -27b^3 -144a^2b + 108ab^2
9.Factorise each of the following
Without actually calculating the cubes, find the value of each of the following
(- 12)3 + (7)3 + (5)3
10.Factorise 27x^3 +y^3 +z^3 -9xyz.
8th cbse test no 2 december 2021
.Use a suitable identity to get each of the following products.
1.(p - 11) (p + 11)
2. (2y + 5) (2y - 5)
3.(12a - 9) (12a +9)
4.(2a-1/2)(2a-1/2)
(5) (1.1m - 0.4) (1.1m + 0.4)
(6) (a2+ b2) (- a2+ b2)
(7) (6x - 7) (6x + 7)
(8.) (- a/2 + c/2) (- a/2 + c/2)
(9) [(p/8)+(3q/4)] [(p/8)+(3q/4)]
(10.) (3a + 9b) (3a - 9b)
Test no 1 term 2
10th 9th and 8th question papers Dec q9th 2021
8th class
9th class
10th cbse
The end
Science model Paper 1
Science prefinal 2
Maths predfinal 1
Science prefinal 1
Science half yearly 2 dated October 29th
Maths half yearly 2
10th cbse dated 28th October
Science half yearly dated Oct 24
Half yearly 1
Cyclic 7
Life process
Cyclic 7 areas maths
Cyclic test 6
Cuclic 6pprobability
Cyclic 5 refraction
Cyclic 5 maths trigonometry 20/9/21
Test Sunday 19/09/21
8th cbse 20x5=100 marks test 19/09/21
Question 1.
The sum of the interior angles of a regular polygon is twice the sum of the exterior angles. Find the number of sides of the polygon
Question 2.
Three angles of the quadrilaterals are in the ratio 2:3:4. The sum of the least and the greatest of these three angles is equal to 180°. Find all the angles of the quadrilateral
Question 3.
The exterior angle of a regular polygon is one-fifth of its interior angle. How many sides has the polygon?
Question 4.
One of the angle in the parallelogram is 80°. Find the other angles in the parallelogram
Question 5.
The angles of the quadrilateral is in the ratio 1:2:3:4. Find all the angles
Question 6.
One of the diagonals of a rhombus is equal to its sides. Find the measures of all the angles of the rhombus
Question 7.
In a parallelogram ABCD, the bisectors of ∠ A and ∠ B meet at O. Find ∠ AOB.
Question 1.
The sum of the interior angles of a regular polygon is twice the sum of the exterior angles. Find the number of sides of the polygon
Question 2.
Three angles of the quadrilaterals are in the ratio 2:3:4. The sum of the least and the greatest of these three angles is equal to 180°. Find all the angles of the quadrilateral
Question 3.
The exterior angle of a regular polygon is one-fifth of its interior angle. How many sides has the polygon?
Question 4.
One of the angle in the parallelogram is 80°. Find the other angles in the parallelogram
Question 5.
The angles of the quadrilateral is in the ratio 1:2:3:4. Find all the angles
Question 6.
One of the diagonals of a rhombus is equal to its sides. Find the measures of all the angles of the rhombus
Question 7.
In a parallelogram ABCD, the bisectors of ∠ A and ∠ B meet at O. Find ∠ AOB.
Question 8.
Find the value of x in the trapezium ABCD
Question 9.
The diagonals of a rhombus are 8 cm and 15 cm. Find its side.
Question 10.
Find the values of x and y in the following parallelogram.
11. One angle of a parallelogram is of measure 70°. Find the measures of the remaining angles of the parallelogram.
12. In the given figure PR is a diagonal of the parallelogram PQRS.
(i) Is PS = RQ? Why?
(ii) Is SR = PQ? Why?
(iii) Is PR = RP? Why?
(iv) Is ΔPSR ≌ ΔRQP? Why?
13. The perimeter of a parallelogram is 150 cm. One of its side is greater than the other by 25 cm.
Find length of all sides of the parallelogram.
14. Lengths of adjacent sides of a parallelogram is 3 cm and 4 cm. Find its perimeter.
15. In a parallelogram, the ratio of the adjacent sides is 4 : 5 and its perimeter is 72 cm then, find the sides of the parallelogram.
16. The adjacent figure HOPE is a parallelogram. Find the angle measure x, y and z.
17. Find value of x and y in the following figures.
18. Find x, y, z in the given parallelogram ABCD.
20 define centre of curvature
Radius of curvature
Focus
Focal length
Principal axis
Aperture
9th cbse test dated 19/09/21 50x1=50
Motion linear equations
1. The linear equation 4x – 10y = 14 has:
a) A unique solution
b) Two solutions
c) Infinitely many solutions
d) No solutions
2. Find the number of solutions of the following pair of linear equations. x + 2y – 8 = 0 and 2x + 4y = 16:
a) 0
b) 1
c) 2
d) Infinite
3. If (2, 0) is a solution of the linear equation 2x +3y = k, then the value of k is:
a) 4
b) 6
c) 5
d) 2
4. The graph of the linear equation 2x +3y = 6 cuts the y-axis at the point:
a) (2, 0)
b) (0, 3)
c) (3, 0)
d) (0, 2)
5. The equation y = 5, in two variables, can be written as:
a) 1 .x + 1 .y = 5
b) 0 .x + 0 .y = 5
c) 1 .x + 0 .y = 5
d)0 .x + 1 .y = 5
6. Any point on the line y = x is of the form:
a) (a, –a)
b) (0, a)
c) (a, 0)
d) (a, a)
7. The graph of x = 5 is a line:
a) Parallel to x-axis at a distance 5 units from the origin
b) Parallel to y-axis at a distance 5 units from the origin
c) Making an intercept 5 on the x-axis
d) Making an intercept 5 on the y-axis
8. x = 9, y = 4 is a solution of the linear equation:
a) 2x + y = 17
b) x + y = 17
c) x + 2y = 17
d) 3x – 2y = 17
9. Any point on the x-axis is of the form:
a) (0, y)
b) (x, 0)
c) (x, x)
d) (x, y)
10. If a linear equation has solutions (–3, 3), (0, 0) and (3, –3), then it is of the form:
a)y – x = 0
b)x + y = 0
c) –2x + y = 0
d) –x + 2y = 0
11. The positive solutions of the equation ax + by + c = 0 always lie in the:
a) 1st quadrant
b) 2nd quadrant
c) 3rd quadrant
d) 4th quadrant
12. The graph of the linear equation 5x + 3y = 10 is a line which meets the x-axis at the point:
a) (0, 3)
b) (3, 0)
c) (2, 0)
d) (0, 2)
13. The point of the form (a, –a) always lies on the line:
a) x = a
b) y = –a
c) y = x
d) x + y = 0
14. The graph of x = 9 is a straight line:
a) Intersecting both the axes
b) parallel to y-axis
c) parallel to x-axis
d) Passing through the origin
15. Equation of the line parallel to x-axis and 6 units above the origin is:
a) x = 6
b) x = –6
c)y = 6
d)y = –6
Question 16
The value of y at x = -1 in the equation 5y = 2 is
(a) 52
(b) 25
(c) 10
(d) 0
Question 17
Equation of a line which is 5 units distance above the x-axis is
(a) x = 5
(b) x + 5 = y
(c) y – 5
(d) x – y = 0
Question 18
x = 3 and y = -2 is a solution of the equation 4px – 3y = 12, then the value of p is
(a) 0
(b) 12
(c) 2
(d) 3
Question 19
Which of the following is the equation of a line parallel to y-axis?
(a) y = 0
(b) x + y = z
(c) y = x
(d) x = a
Question 20
Any point on the line y = 3x is of the form
(a) (a, 3a)
(b) (3a, a)
(c) (a, a3)
(d) (a3, -a)
Question 21
To which equation does the graph represent?
(a) 3x – 7y = 10
(b) y – 2x = 3
(c) 8y – 6x = 4
(d) 5x +352y = 25
Question 22
Any point of the form (a, – a) always lie on the graph of the equation
(a) x = -a
(b) y = a
(c) y = x
(d) x + y = 0
Question 23
The graph of the equation 2x + 3y = 6 cuts the x-axis at the point
(a) (0, 3)
(b) (3, 0)
(c) (2, 0)
(d) (0, 2)
Question 24
Graph of linear equation ax + by + c = 0, a * 0, 6*0 cuts x-axis and y-axis respectively at the points.
(a) (−ca, 0), (0, −cb)
(b) (0, −cb, 0), (−ca, 0)
(c) (-c, 0) (0, -c)
(d) (x, 0) (y, 0)
Question 25
Which of the following ordered pairs is a solution of the equation x – 2y – 6?
(a) (2, 4)
(b) (0, 3)
(c) (-4, 1)
(d) (4, -1)
Question 26
How many linear equation in x and y can be satisfied by x = 1 and y = 2?
(a) only one
(b) two
(c) infinitely many
(d) three
Question 27
Solution of linear equation 2x + 0.y + 9 = 0 is
(a) (92, m)
(b) (n, −92)
(c) (0, −92)
(d) (−92, 0)
Question 28
If (3, 2) is the solution 3x – ky = 5, then k equals of the equation
(a) 2
(b) 4
(c) 3
(d) 12
Question 29
Cost of book (x) exceeds twice the cost of pen (y) by Rs 10. This statement can be expressed as linear equation.
(a) x – 2y – 10 = 0
(b) 2x – y – 10 = 0
(c) 2x + y – 10 = 0
(d) x – 2y + 10 = 0
Question 30
If x represents the age of father and y represents the present age of the son, then the statement for ‘present age of father is 5 more than 6 times the age of the son’ in terms of mathematical equation is
(a) 6x + y = 5
(b) x = 6y + 5
(c) x + 6y = 5
(d) x – 6 = 5
Question 31
Equation of a line passing through origin is
(a) x + y = 1
(b) x = 2y – 4
(c) x + y = 0
(d) y = x – 1
32) The linear equation 3x-11y=10 has:
a. Unique solution
b. Two solutions
c. Infinitely many solutions
D no solution
33) 3x+10 = 0 will has:
a. Unique solution
b. Two solutions
c. Infinitely many solutions
d.No solutions
34) The solution of equation x-2y = 4 is:
a. (0,2)
b. (2,0)
c. (4,0)
d. (1,1)
35) Find the value of k, if x = 1, y = 2 is a solution of the equation 2x + 3y = k.
a. 5
b. 6
c. 7
d. 8
36) Point (3, 4) lies on the graph of the equation 3y = kx + 7. The value of k is:
a. 4/3
b. 5/3
c. 3
d. 4
37) The graph of linear equation x+2y = 2, cuts the y-axis at:
a. (2,0)
b. (0,2)
c. (0,1)
d. (1,1)
38) Any point on line x = y is of the form:
a. (k, -k)
b. (0, k)
c. (k, 0)
d. (k, k)
39) The graph of x = 3 is a line:
a. Parallel to the x-axis at a distance of 3 units from the origin
b. Parallel to the y-axis at a distance of 3 units from the origin
c. Makes an intercept 3 on the x-axis
d. Makes an intercept 3 on the y-axis
41.. Int. Any equation of the form ax + by + c = 0 where a, b and c are real numbers and a and b are not both zero is called a ————-
A. Linear equations in two variables
B. Quadratic equations in two variables
C. Cubic equation in two variables
42 The equation y = 2 in two variables can be written as ——————
A. 0 .x + 1 .y = 2
B. 1. x + 0. y = 2
C. 1. x + 0 .y = 0
43. A linear equation in two variables has ———– solutions.
A. One solution
B. Finite solutions
C. Infinitely many solutions
44. Which of the following is not a solution of the equation 2x + y = 7
A. (0, 7)
B. (1, 4)
C. (2, 3)
45. The value of k, if x = 2, y = 1 is a solution of the equation 2x + 3y = k is ———
A. 5
B. 6
C. 7
46. The graph of the equation of the form y = kx is a line which always passes through the ————-
A. x axis
B. y axis
C. Origin
47. If the point (3, 4) lies on the graph of the equation 3y = ax + 7, then the value of a is ————-
A. 3/5
B. 5/3
C. 3/7
48. The graph of every linear equation in two variables is a ——–
A. Straight line
B. Curved figure
C. open curve
49. The graph of x = a is a straight line parallel to the ——— axis.
A. x axis
B. y axis
C. None of these
50. The graph of y = a is a straight line parallel to the ——— axis.
A. x axis
B. y axis
C. None of these
51. Any point on the x axis is of the form ————
A. (x, 0)
B. (0, x)
C. (0, y)
52. The equation of y axis is of the form —————
A. y = 0
B. x = 0
C. x = 1
53. The graph of y = 3 is a line ————-
A. Parallel to x axis at distance 3 units from the origin.
B. Parallel to y axis at distance 3 units from the origin.
C. None of these
54. x = 4, y=3 is a solution of the linear equation:
A. 2x + y = 17
B. 2x + 3y = 17
C. x + 3y = 17
55. Solution of the equation 3x – 5 = 2x + 1is —————-
A. 5
B. 6
C. 7
ercept
b. Slope
c. Solution of the equation
d. None of the above
56) If x and y are both positive solutions of equation ax+by+c=0, always lie in the:
a. First quadrant
b. Second quadrant
c. Third quadrant
d. Fourth quadrant
57) A linear equation in two variables is of the form ax + by + c = 0, where
(a) a = 0, c = 0
(b) a ≠ 0, b = 0
(c) a = 0, b ≠ 0
(d) a ≠ 0, b ≠ 0
58) Any point on the x-axis is of the form
(a) (x, y)
(b) (0, y)
(c) (x, 0)
(d) (x, x)
59) Any point on the y-axis is of the form
(a) (y, y)
(b) (0, y)
(c) (x, y)
(d) (x, 0)
60) The linear equation 2x – 5y = 7 has
(a) No solution
(b) unique solution
(c) Two solutions
(d) Infinitely many solutions
61) The linear equation 3x – y = x – 1 has
(a) No solution
(b) unique solution
(c) Two solutions
(d) Infinitely many solutions
62) The graph of the linear equation 2x + 3y = 6 cuts the y-axis at the point
(a) (2, 0)
(b) (0, 2)
(c) (3, 0)
(d) (0, 3)
63) The equation 2x + 5y = 7 has a unique solution, if x, y are:
(a) Rational numbers
(b) Real numbers
(c) Natural numbers
(d) Positive real numbers
64) The point of the form (a, a) always lies on:
(a) On the line x + y = 0
(b) On the line y = x
(c) x-axis
(d) y-axis
65) If we multiply or divide both sides of a linear equation with the same non-zero number, then the solution of the linear equation:
(a) Remains the same
(b) Changes
(c) Changes in case of multiplication only
(d) Changes in case of division
66) If (2, 0) is a solution of the linear equation 2x + 3y = k, then the value of k is
(a) 2
(b) 4
(c)
67. The linear equation 3x-11y=10 has:
a) Unique solution
b) Two solutions
c) Infinitely many solutions
d) No solutions
68. 3x+10 = 0 will has:
a) Unique solution
b) Two solutions
c) Infinitely many solutions
d) No solutions
69. The solution of equation x-2y = 4 is:
a) (0,2)
b) (2,0)
c) (4,0)
d) (1,1)
70. The value of k, if x = 1, y = 2 is a solution of the equation 2x + 3y = k.
a) 5
b) 6
c) 7
d) 8
71. Point (3, 4) lies on the graph of the equation 3y = kx + 7. The value of k is:
a) 4/3
b) 5/3
c) 3
d) 7/3
72. The graph of linear equation x+2y = 2, cuts the y-axis at:
a) (2,0)
b) (0,2)
c) (0,1)
d) (1,1)
73. Any point on the line x = y is of the form:
a) (k, -k)
b) (0, k)
c) (k, 0)
d) (k, k)
74. The graph of x = 3 is a line:
a) Parallel to x-axis at a distance of 3 units from the origin
b) Parallel to y-axis at a distance of 3 units from the origin
c) Makes an intercept 3 on x-axis
d) Makes an intercept 3 on y-axis
75. In equation, y = mx+c, m is:
a) Intercept
b) Slope of the line
c) Solution of the equation
d) None of the above
End of exam on sep 19/11/21
Cyclic 4 refelction 10th cbse mcqs
Cyclic 4 refelction 10th cbse mcqs
Q1. An incident ray makes angle of 35deg.with the reflecting surface as shown in the figure
below. What will be the angle of reflection?
below. What will be the angle of reflection?
1 35 degrees
2 45 deg
3 55 deg
4 90 deg
Q2. My friend and I are standing in a room. There is a mirror in front of me where I can
see myself but not my friend.
Shown here is the view from the top of the room.
In which direction (P, Q, R or S) should my friend move so that I can see myself as
a. only S
b. only R
c. either P or S
d either Q or R
Q3. What type of image is always formed by a plane mirror?
a. virtual and inverted
b. real and inverted
c. virtual and erect
d. real and erect
Q4. Anil enters the trial room of a shop to try on the jeans he wants to purchase. He finds
that he is in between two parallel mirrors facing each other. How many images of himself
does he see?
a. one
b. two
c. four
d. more than ten
Q5. A spherical mirror and a thin spherical lens have each a focal length of –15 cm. The
mirror and the lens are likely to be.
a) both concave
b) both convex
c) the mirror is concave and the lens is convex
d) the mirror is convex and the lens is concave
Q6. An object is placed at the centre of curvature of a concave mirror. The distance
between its image and the pole is
A) equal to ‘f’
b) between ‘f’ and ‘2f’
c) equal to ‘2f’
d) greater than ‘2f’
Q7. An object is placed 20 cm from the concave mirror of focal length 10 cm, then image
is formed at
a) behind the mirror
b) between the mirror and focus
c) at focus
d) centre of curvature of mirror
Q8. Position of the image formed by a concave mirror when the object is placed beyond
the centre of curvature.
a) Between centre of curvature and focus
b) Beyond centre of curvature
c) Between focus and pole
d) Between pole and focus
Q9. Which of the following ray diagrams is correct for the ray of light incident on a
concave mirror as shown in figure?
b) B
c) C
d) D
Q10. Under which of the following conditions, a concave mirror can form an image larger
than the actual object?
a) When the object is kept at a distance equal to its radius of curvature
b) When object is kept at a distance less than its focal length
c) When object is placed between the focus and centre of curvature
d) When object is kept beyond radius of curvature
Q11. The object is placed 60 cm in front of a convex mirror. The virtual image formed by
the mirror is located 30 cm behind the mirror. What is the object’s magnification?
a) +2
b) –2
c) +0.5
d) –0.5
Q12. Which statement is true for the reflection of light?
a) The angles of incidence and reflection are equal
b) The reflected light is less bright than the incident light
c) The sum of angle of incidence and reflection is always greater than 900
d) The beams of incident light after reflection diverges at unequal angles
Q13. A student conducts an activity using a concave mirror with focal length of 10 cm. He
placed the object 15 cm from the mirror. Where is the image likely to form?
a) at 6 cm behind the mirror
b) at 6 cm In front of the mirror
c) at 30 cm behind the mirror
d) at 30 cm in front of the mirror
Q14. Which of the following can make a parallel beam of light when light from a point
source is incident on it?
A. Concave mirror as well as convex lens.
B. Convex mirror as well as concave lens.
C. Two plane mirrors placed at 90° to each other.
D. Concave mirror as well as concave lens.
Q15. Which spherical mirror used to produce heat in solar furnaces?
a) Concave
b) Convex
c) Plane
d) None of these
Q16. f = r/2 is valid
a. For convex mirrors but not for concave mirrors
b. For concave mirrors but not for convex mirrors
c. For both convex and concave mirrors
d. Neither for convex mirrors nor for concave mirrors
Q17. No matter how far you stand from a mirror, your image appears erect.
The mirror is likely to be
a) plane
b) concave
c) convex
d) either plane or convex
Q18. A point object is placed on the principal axis of a spherical mirror. The objectdistance ‘u’ is….
a) definitely negative
b) definitely positive
c) positive if the object is to the left of the centre of curvature
d) positive if the object is to the right of the centre of curvature
Q19. The magnification ‘m’ of an image formed by a spherical mirror is negative. It
means, the image is..
a) smaller than the object
b) larger than the object
c) erect
d)inverted
20.)While looking at the above concave mirror diagram, Nalini concluded the followingi. the image of the object will be a virtual one.
ii. the reflected ray will travel along the same path as the incident ray but in opposite direction.
iii. the image of the object will be inverted.
iv. this is a concave mirror and hence the focal length will be negative.
Which one of the above statements are correct?
A. i and ii
B. i and iii
C. ii, iii and iv
D. i, ii, iii and iv
In the following questions a statement of Assertion followed by a statement
of Reason is given. Choose the correct answer out of the following choices.
a) If both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is a correct explanation
of the assertion.
b) If both the assertion and reason are true but the reason is not a correct explanation of
the assertion.
c) Assertion is true but reason is false
d) Assertion is false but reason is true.
Q21. Assertion (A) : Keeping a point object fixed, if a plane mirror is moved, the image will
also move.
Reason (R) : In case of a plane mirror, distance of object and its image is equal from any point
on the mirror.
Q22. Assertion (A) : A convex mirror is used as a driver’s mirror.
Reason (R) : Convex mirrors have a wider field of view as they are curved outwards.
They also give an erect, though diminished image.
Q23. Assertion (A) : The centre of curvature is not a part of the mirror. It lies outside its
reflecting surface.
Reason (R) : The reflecting surface of a spherical mirror forms a part of a sphere. This sphere
has a centre.
Q24.Assertion (A) : Mirror formula can be applied to a plane mirror.
Reason (R) : A plane mirror is a spherical mirror of infinite focal length.
Q25. Assertion (A) : The image formed by a concave mirror is certainly real if the object is
virtual.
Reason (R) : The image formed by a concave mirror is certainly virtual if the object is real.
Q26. Assertion (A) : A person cannot see his image in a concave mirror, unless, he is standing
beyond the center of curvature of the mirror.
Reason (R) : In a concave mirror, image formed is real provided the object is situated beyond
its focus.
All the objects either reflect or scatter the light in all directions. This reflected or scattered light,
on falling on our retina, makes the objects visible to us. So, with the help of light, we are able to
see this beautiful world. When light is incident on a surface, separating two media, a part of the
light is bounced back to the first medium. This is known as reflection. The image formed by a
plane mirror is virtual and erect and it is laterally inverted. A spherical mirror is a part of a
sphere. If a mirror is obtained from a sphere silvered on the outer side, it is called a concave
mirror and if a mirror is obtained from a sphere silvered inside, it is called a convex mirror. The
focal length “f” of a spherical mirror is equal to half of the radius of curvature R. A convex
mirror is a diverging mirror and it produces virtual, diminished image whereas concave mirror
is a converging mirror and can produce magnified virtual images as well as real images.
Q27.When light is reflected from a concave mirror or a convex mirror what happens to
the speed of light?
(a) increases
(b) decreases
(c) remains same
(d) depends on the thickness of the mirror
Q28. Two big mirrors A and B are fitted side by side on a wall. A man is standing at such
a distance from the wall that he can see the erect image of his face in both the mirrors.
When the man starts walking towards the mirrors, he finds that the size of his face in
mirror A goes on increasing but that in mirror B remains the same:
(a) Mirror A is concave and mirror B is convex.
(b) Mirror A is plane and mirror B is concave
(c) Mirror A is concave and mirror B is plane.
(d) Mirror A is convex and mirror B is concave
Q29. An object is placed 20 cm in front of a plane mirror. The mirror is moved 2 cm
towards the object. The distance between the positions of the original and final images
seen in the mirror is:
(a) 2 cm.
(b) 4 cm.
(c) 10 cm
(d) 22 cm
Q30. An object is placed at 100 mm in front of a concave mirror which produces an
upright image (erect image). The radius of curvature of the mirror is:
(a) Less than 100 mm.
(b) Between 100 mm and 200 mm.
(c) Exactly 200 mm.
(d) More than 200 mm
Q31. A ray of light that strikes a plane mirror PQ at an angle of incidence of 30o
, is
reflected from the plane mirror and then strikes a second plane mirror QR placed at right
angles to the first mirror. The angle of reflection at the second mirror is:
(a) 30 deg
b) 45o
.
(c) 60o
.
(d) 90o
Read the following and answer questions from
A real image (always inverted) is the one through which the rays of light actually pass
after reflection from concave mirror and which can be formed on a screen. A virtual image
(Always erect) is the one through which the rays do not actually pass, although they
appear to come from it. The position, nature and size of the image of an object formed by
a concave mirror changes with the position of the object. The size of image may be
determined by using a graph paper fixed on the screen.
Q32. Which of the following mirror is used by a dentist to examine a small cavity?
a) Concave mirror
b) Convex mirror
c) Combination of (a) and (b)
d) None of these
Q33. The image shows the path of incident rays to a concave mirror. Where would the
reflected rays meet for the image formation to take place?
a) Between F and O
b) Beyond C
c) Between C and F
d) Behind the mirror
Q34. Rekha placed a juice bottle at a distance of 20 cm in front of a convex mirror which
has a focal length of 20 cm. Where is the image likely to form?
a) At a distance of 10 cm in front of the mirror
b) At focus in front of the mirror
c) At a distance of 10 cm behind the mirror
d) At focus behind the mirror
Read the following and answer questions
Rear view mirror is a device that allows the driver to see rear ward. It usually fmds its place at
the top of windscreen inside the cabin. This device is one of the most basic but essential
safety devices in the vehicle. It provides assistance to the driver during overtaking, parking in
reverse gear etc. Generally, vehicles also have a pair of mirrors attached to the body from
outside. They are popular as ‘side mirrors’ or Outer Rear View Mirrors (ORVM) which serve
the same purpose. Almost all modern cars mount their side mirrors on the doors-normally at
A-pillar rather than the wings (the portion of the body above the wheel well).
Q35. For a real object, which of the following can produce a real image?
(a) Plane mirror
(b) Concave mirror
(c) Concave lens
(d) Convex mirror
Q36. An object at a distance of +15 cm is slowly moved towards the pole of a convex
mirror. The image will get...
(a) shortened and real
(b) enlarged and real
(c) enlarge and virtual
(d) diminished and virtual
Q37. Mark the correct statement:
(a) Convex mirror conform images of objects spread over a large area.
(b) Convex mirrors are used by dentist.
(c) In convex mirror image is formed larger in size, erect and real.
(d) Convex mirror forms real image.
Read the following and answer questions
Reflecting surface do not have to be flat. The most common curved mirrors are spherical.
A spherical mirror is called convex if the reflection takes place on the outer surface. A
mirror is called concave if the reflecting surface is on the inner surface of the sphere. We
first consider an object that is very far from a concave mirror. For an object infinitely far
away the ray would be precisely parallel.
The law of reflection holds for each of these rays at the point each strikes the mirror. As
can be seen, they are not all through to a single point. In order to form a sharp image, the
rays must be come to a point. The point F, where rays parallel to the principal axis come to a
focus is called focal point of the mirror and focal length of the mirror is half of curvature
38. An object 20 cm from a spherical mirror gives rise to virtual image 15 cm behind the
mirror. The type of mirror and its focal length is
a) concave; 30 cm
b) concave; 60 cm
c) convex; 30 cm
d) convex; 60 cm
39. Choose the wrong statement.
a) A convex mirror can form a diminished real image
b) A convex mirror can form a diminished virtual image
c) A concave mirror can form a magnified virtual image
d) A concave mirror can form a magnified real image
Q40. The angle between an incident ray and plane mirror is 40degrees
. The total angle between
the incident ray and reflected
A. 50 deg
B.80 deg
C.100 deg
D. 90 deg
Cyclic test 4 mcqs
coordinate geometry
1. The distance of the point P(2, 3) from the x-axis is
(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 1
(d) 5
2. The distance between the point P(1, 4) and Q(4, 0) is
(a) 4
(b) 5
(c) 6
(d) 3√3
3. The points (-5, 1), (1, p) and (4, -2) are collinear if
the value of p is
(a) 3
(b) 2
(c) 1
(d) -1
4. The area of the triangle ABC with the vertices A(-5, 7), B(-4, -5) and C(4, 5) is
(a) 63
(b) 35
(c) 53
(d) 36
5. The distance of the point (α, β) from the origin is
(a) α + β
(b) α² + β²
(c) |α| + |β|
(d) root of α2+β2
6. The area of the triangle whose vertices are A(1, 2), B(-2, 3) and C(-3, -4) is
(a) 11
(b) 22
(c) 33
(d) 21
7. The line segment joining the points (3, -1) and (-6, 5) is trisected. The coordinates of point of trisection are
(a) (3, 3)
(b) (- 3, 3)
(c) (3, – 3)
(d) (-3,-3)
8. The line 3x + y – 9 = 0 divides the line joining the points (1, 3) and (2, 7) internally in the ratio
(a) 3 : 4
(b) 3 : 2
(c) 2 : 3
(d) 4 : 3
9. The distance between A (a + b, a – b) and B(a – b, -a – b) is
10. If (a/3, 4) is the mid-point of the segment joining the points P(-6, 5) and R(-2, 3), then the value of ‘a’ is
(a) 12
(b) -6
(c) -12
(d) -4
11. If the distance between the points (x, -1) and (3, 2) is 5, then the value of x is
(a) -7 or -1
(b) -7 or 1
(c) 7 or 1
(d) 7 or -1
12. The points (1,1), (-2, 7) and (3, -3) are
(a) vertices of an equilateral triangle
(b) collinear
(c) vertices of an isosceles triangle
(d) none of these
13. The coordinates of the centroid of a triangle whose vertices are (0, 6), (8,12) and (8, 0) is
(a) (4, 6)
(b) (16, 6)
(c) (8, 6)
(d) (16/3, 6)
14. Two vertices of a triangle are (3, – 5) and (- 7,4). If its centroid is (2, -1), then the third vertex is
(a) (10, 2)
(b) (-10,2)
(c) (10,-2)
(d) (-10,-2)
15. The area of the triangle formed by the points A(-1.5, 3), B(6, -2) and C(-3, 4) is
(a) 0
(b) 1
(c) 2
(d) 3/2
16. If the points P(1, 2), B(0, 0) and C(a, b) are collinear, then
(a) 2a = b
(b) a = -b
(c) a = 2b
(d) a = b
17. If the distance between the points (2, –2) and (–1, x) is 5, one of the values of x is
(A) –2
(B) 2
(C) –1
(D) 1
18.. The mid-point of the line segment joining the points A (–2, 8) and B (– 6, – 4) is
(A) (– 4, – 6)
(B) (2, 6)
(C) (– 4, 2)
(D) (4, 2)
19. The points A (9, 0), B (9, 6), C (–9, 6) and D (–9, 0) are the vertices of a
(A) Square
(B) Rectangle
(C) Rhombus
(D) Trapezium
20.. The distance of the point P (2, 3) from the x-axis is
(A) 2
(B) 3
(C) 1
(D) 5
21. The distance between the points A (0, 6) and B (0, –2) is
(A) 6
(B) 8
C)7
D)4
.22. AOBC is a rectangle whose three vertices are vertices A (0, 3), O (0, 0) and B (5, 0). The length of its diagonal is
(A) 5
(B) 3
(C) √34
(D) 4
23.. If P (a/3, 4) is the mid-point of the line segment joining the points Q (– 6, 5) and R (– 2, 3), then the value of a is
(A) – 4
(B) – 12
(C) 12
(D) – 6
.24 The coordinates of the point which is equidistant from the three vertices of the Δ AOB as shown in the figure is:
(A) (x, y)
(B) (y, x)
(C) (x/2, y/2)
(D) (y/2, x/2)
25. A circle drawn with origin as the centre passes through The point which does not lie in the interior of the circle is
(C) (5, –1/2)
(D) (–6, 5/2)
26. If the distance between the points (4, p) and (1, 0) is 5, then the value of p is
(A) 4 only
(B) ± 4
(C) – 4 only
(D) 0
27. The area of a triangle with vertices A (3, 0), B (7, 0) and C (8, 4) is:
(A) 14
(B) 28
(C) 8
(D) 6
28. The point which divides the line segment joining the points (7, –6) and (3, 4) in ratio 1 : 2 internally lies in the
(A) I quadrant
(B) II quadrant
(C) III quadrant
(D) IV quadrant
29 One of the two points of trisection of the line segment joining the points A (7, – 2) and B (1, – 5) which divides the line in the ratio 1:2 are:
(A) (5, –3)
(B) (5, 3)
(C) (–5, –3)
(D) (13, 0)
30. A line intersects the y-axis and x-axis at the points P and Q, respectively. If (2, –5) is the mid - point of PQ, then the coordinates of P and Q are, respectively.
(A) (0, – 5) and (2, 0)
(B) (0, 10) and (– 4, 0)
(C) (0, 4) and (– 10, 0)
(D) (0, – 10) and (4,0)
coordinate geometry
1. The distance of the point P(2, 3) from the x-axis is
(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 1
(d) 5
2. The distance between the point P(1, 4) and Q(4, 0) is
(a) 4
(b) 5
(c) 6
(d) 3√3
3. The points (-5, 1), (1, p) and (4, -2) are collinear if
the value of p is
(a) 3
(b) 2
(c) 1
(d) -1
4. The area of the triangle ABC with the vertices A(-5, 7), B(-4, -5) and C(4, 5) is
(a) 63
(b) 35
(c) 53
(d) 36
5. The distance of the point (α, β) from the origin is
(a) α + β
(b) α² + β²
(c) |α| + |β|
(d) root of α2+β2
6. The area of the triangle whose vertices are A(1, 2), B(-2, 3) and C(-3, -4) is
(a) 11
(b) 22
(c) 33
(d) 21
7. The line segment joining the points (3, -1) and (-6, 5) is trisected. The coordinates of point of trisection are
(a) (3, 3)
(b) (- 3, 3)
(c) (3, – 3)
(d) (-3,-3)
8. The line 3x + y – 9 = 0 divides the line joining the points (1, 3) and (2, 7) internally in the ratio
(a) 3 : 4
(b) 3 : 2
(c) 2 : 3
(d) 4 : 3
9. The distance between A (a + b, a – b) and B(a – b, -a – b) is
10. If (a/3, 4) is the mid-point of the segment joining the points P(-6, 5) and R(-2, 3), then the value of ‘a’ is
(a) 12
(b) -6
(c) -12
(d) -4
11. If the distance between the points (x, -1) and (3, 2) is 5, then the value of x is
(a) -7 or -1
(b) -7 or 1
(c) 7 or 1
(d) 7 or -1
12. The points (1,1), (-2, 7) and (3, -3) are
(a) vertices of an equilateral triangle
(b) collinear
(c) vertices of an isosceles triangle
(d) none of these
13. The coordinates of the centroid of a triangle whose vertices are (0, 6), (8,12) and (8, 0) is
(a) (4, 6)
(b) (16, 6)
(c) (8, 6)
(d) (16/3, 6)
14. Two vertices of a triangle are (3, – 5) and (- 7,4). If its centroid is (2, -1), then the third vertex is
(a) (10, 2)
(b) (-10,2)
(c) (10,-2)
(d) (-10,-2)
15. The area of the triangle formed by the points A(-1.5, 3), B(6, -2) and C(-3, 4) is
(a) 0
(b) 1
(c) 2
(d) 3/2
16. If the points P(1, 2), B(0, 0) and C(a, b) are collinear, then
(a) 2a = b
(b) a = -b
(c) a = 2b
(d) a = b
17. If the distance between the points (2, –2) and (–1, x) is 5, one of the values of x is
(A) –2
(B) 2
(C) –1
(D) 1
18.. The mid-point of the line segment joining the points A (–2, 8) and B (– 6, – 4) is
(A) (– 4, – 6)
(B) (2, 6)
(C) (– 4, 2)
(D) (4, 2)
19. The points A (9, 0), B (9, 6), C (–9, 6) and D (–9, 0) are the vertices of a
(A) Square
(B) Rectangle
(C) Rhombus
(D) Trapezium
20.. The distance of the point P (2, 3) from the x-axis is
(A) 2
(B) 3
(C) 1
(D) 5
21. The distance between the points A (0, 6) and B (0, –2) is
(A) 6
(B) 8
C)7
D)4
.22. AOBC is a rectangle whose three vertices are vertices A (0, 3), O (0, 0) and B (5, 0). The length of its diagonal is
(A) 5
(B) 3
(C) √34
(D) 4
23.. If P (a/3, 4) is the mid-point of the line segment joining the points Q (– 6, 5) and R (– 2, 3), then the value of a is
(A) – 4
(B) – 12
(C) 12
(D) – 6
.24 The coordinates of the point which is equidistant from the three vertices of the Δ AOB as shown in the figure is:
(A) (x, y)
(B) (y, x)
(C) (x/2, y/2)
(D) (y/2, x/2)
25. A circle drawn with origin as the centre passes through The point which does not lie in the interior of the circle is
(C) (5, –1/2)
(D) (–6, 5/2)
26. If the distance between the points (4, p) and (1, 0) is 5, then the value of p is
(A) 4 only
(B) ± 4
(C) – 4 only
(D) 0
27. The area of a triangle with vertices A (3, 0), B (7, 0) and C (8, 4) is:
(A) 14
(B) 28
(C) 8
(D) 6
28. The point which divides the line segment joining the points (7, –6) and (3, 4) in ratio 1 : 2 internally lies in the
(A) I quadrant
(B) II quadrant
(C) III quadrant
(D) IV quadrant
29 One of the two points of trisection of the line segment joining the points A (7, – 2) and B (1, – 5) which divides the line in the ratio 1:2 are:
(A) (5, –3)
(B) (5, 3)
(C) (–5, –3)
(D) (13, 0)
30. A line intersects the y-axis and x-axis at the points P and Q, respectively. If (2, –5) is the mid - point of PQ, then the coordinates of P and Q are, respectively.
(A) (0, – 5) and (2, 0)
(B) (0, 10) and (– 4, 0)
(C) (0, 4) and (– 10, 0)
(D) (0, – 10) and (4,0)
Case study
31. What is the distance between
31. What is the distance between
S ( -10 , 5 ) and T ( 3. , - 8 )
(a) 4 root 29
(b) 2 root 29
(c) 13 root 2
(d) 16 root 3
32.. What is the distance between R ( -7 , - 4 ), and T. ( 3 , - 8 )
(a) 4 root 29
(b) 2 root 29
(c) 8 root 15
(d) 16 root 3
33. What is the distance between S ( -10 5 ) and
R. ( - 7 , -4)
(a) 4 root 15
(b) 3 root 10
(c) 8 root 15
(d) 16 root 3
34.. Which star is farthest from the center of the room?
(a) S. ( -10 5,)
(b) T (3, -8 )
(c) R ( -7. , -4 )
(d) All are at same distance
(a) 4 root 29
(b) 2 root 29
(c) 13 root 2
(d) 16 root 3
32.. What is the distance between R ( -7 , - 4 ), and T. ( 3 , - 8 )
(a) 4 root 29
(b) 2 root 29
(c) 8 root 15
(d) 16 root 3
33. What is the distance between S ( -10 5 ) and
R. ( - 7 , -4)
(a) 4 root 15
(b) 3 root 10
(c) 8 root 15
(d) 16 root 3
34.. Which star is farthest from the center of the room?
(a) S. ( -10 5,)
(b) T (3, -8 )
(c) R ( -7. , -4 )
(d) All are at same distance
35. What is the distance between grocery store and food court?
(a) 137 cm
(b) 129 cm
(c) 8 15 cm
(d) 16 3 cm
36. What is the distance of the school from the house?
(a) 10 cm
(b) 15 cm
(c) 20 cm
(d) 25 cm
37.. If the grocery store and office lie on a line, what is the ratio of distance of house from grocery store to that from office ?
(a) 2 :1
(b) 3 : 1
(c) 4 : 1
(d) 5 : 1
38. What is the ratio of distances of house from school. to food court.
(a) 1 :1
(b) 2 : 1
(c) 3 : 1
(d) 4 : 1
39. What shape is formed by the coordinates of positions of school, grocery store, food court and office?
(a) square
(b) rectangle
(c) rhombus
(d) quadrilateral
40.the point where all medians of triangle meet is called....... and it divides median in ........ ration
A.circum centre 2:1
B.centroid 1:2
C.centroid 2:1
D.centeoid 2:3
Cyclic exam 3 science metals and non metals
1Q. Metals below hydrogen in the activity series can..
a) react with water to liberate hydrogen ions
b) react with water to liberate hydrogen gas
c) react with water at ordinary temperature
d) none of these
2Q. In general, metals are more reactive with ______________ than non-metals, and
give out hydrogen gas in the reaction.
a) acids
b) bases
c)nitrogen
d)oxygen
3Q. In an experiment to investigate corrosion, a piece of iron metal is placed under
different conditions. Each of the test tubes shown here is sealed completely and left
for a few weeks.
1Q. Metals below hydrogen in the activity series can..
a) react with water to liberate hydrogen ions
b) react with water to liberate hydrogen gas
c) react with water at ordinary temperature
d) none of these
2Q. In general, metals are more reactive with ______________ than non-metals, and
give out hydrogen gas in the reaction.
a) acids
b) bases
c)nitrogen
d)oxygen
3Q. In an experiment to investigate corrosion, a piece of iron metal is placed under
different conditions. Each of the test tubes shown here is sealed completely and left
for a few weeks.
Arrange the m in the order of most to least corroded pieces of iron metal at the end
of the experiment.
a). 2,1,3,4
b) 2,3,1,4
c) 3,2,1,4
d) 4,1,2,3
4Q. A metal powder was added to dil. HCl and dil. NaOH solutions taken in separate
test tubes. On making the contents react in both the test tubes, hydrogen gas was
formed in both the cases. The metal used will be:
A.cu
b) Zn
c) Fe
d) Pb
5Q. Silver articles become black on prolonged exposure to air. This is due to the
formation of
a) Ag N3
b) Ag O3
c) Ag2 S
d) Ag S3 and Ag N3
6Q. Pure gold cannot be used for making ornaments. Other metals like copper are
added to the gold used form making jewellery. This is done to make
gold______________________.
a) more shiny
b)heavier
c)harder
d)rust-proof
7Q. Given below is the chemical reaction that happens when iron rusts.
Iron + Oxygen (presence of water) ---→ Iron oxide (rust)
In which of the following case(s) would the iron-nail rust when left for a few days?
P. an iron nail lying in a garden
Q. an iron nail lying at the bottom of a pond
R. an iron nail lying in a bottle of refined oil
S. an iron nail in a cylinder having pure oxygen and nothing else
a) only P
b) only P and Q
c) only P and R
d) only P and S
8Q. Amalgams are mixtures of metals, non-metals or alloys with___________.
a) copper
b) nickel
c) mercury
d) aluminium
9Q. Which of the following is a non-metal that is used in fertilizers to prevent its
a) oxygen
b) nitrogen
c) hydrogen
d) carbon dioxide
10Q. Iron sulphate forms a green coloured solution in water. When copper is added
to the solution the colour remains green.
Copper sulphate forms a blue coloured solution in water. When iron is added to it,
the colour changes to green.
From the above observations, what is true about the reactivity of copper and iron?
a) Iron is more reactive than copper.
b) 2 Copper is more reactive than iron.
c) 3 Copper and iron are equally reactive.
d) 4 Cannot say, till further tests are done.
11Q. Pavan sorts some materials into two different groups and note down their
properties. They are listed in the following table:
the material from group ‘X’ when mixed with water forms substance P and oxide of
material from group ‘Y’ forms substance Q.
Which of the following statements will be TRUE?
a) P is a neutral solution.
b) Q is an acidic solution.
c) P is an acidic solution.
d) Q is a neutral solution.
12Q. The composition of aqua-regia is
a) Dil.HCl : Conc. HNO 3 :: 3 : 1
b) Conc. HCl : Dil. HNO 3 :: 3 : 1
c) Conc. HCl : Conc. HNO 3 :: 3 : 1
d) Dil.HCl : Dil. HNO 3 :: 3 : 1
13Q. Food cans are coated with tin and not with zinc because
a) zinc is costlier than tin.
b) zinc has a higher melting point than tin
c) zinc is more reactive than tin.
d) zinc is less reactive than tin.
14Q. Which of the following only contain non-metals?
a) Carbohydrates
b) Proteins
c) Alloys
d) Both (a) and (b)
15Q. Which of the following metal has highest melting point?
a) Copper
b) Silver
c) Sodium
d) Tungsten
16Q. Silicon is used in
a) solar energy devices
b) semiconductors
c) transistors
d) all of these
17Q. When a metal is added to dilute HCl solution, there is no evolution of gas. Metal
isa) K
b) Na
c) Ag
d) Zn
18Q. Al2O3 + 2NaOH → …… + H2O
a) Al (OH)3
b) Na2O
c) NaAlO2
d) Na Al (OH)3
In the following questions, a statement of assertion (A) is followed by a statement
of reason (R). Mark the correct choice as: (1 X 10 = 10 m)
(a) Both assertion (A) and reason (R) are true and reason (R) is the correct
explanation of assertion (A).
(b) Both assertion (A) and reason (R) are true but reason (R)
(c) Assertion (A) is true but reason (R) is false.
(d) Assertion (A) is false but reason (R) is true.
(e) Both Assertion and Reason are false.
19. Assertion: Different metals have different reactivities with water and dilute acids.
Reason: Reactivity of a metal depends on its position in the reactivity series.
20. Assertion (A) : Hydrogen gas is not evolved when a metal reacts with nitric acid.
Reason (R) : Nitric acid is a strong oxidising agent.
21. Assertion: Metals are sonorous.
Reason: Metals are generally brittle in the solid state; they break into pieces when
hammered.
22. Assertion: When a piece of copper metal is added to dilute sulphuric acid, the
solution turns blue.
Reason: Copper reacts with dilute sulphuric acid to form copper (II) sulphate
solution.
23. Assertion: MgCl2, is a covalent compound.
Reason: MgCl2, is a good conductor of electricity in molten state.
24. Assertion: Gas bubbles are observed when sodium carbonate is added to dilute
hydrochloric acid.
Reason: Carbon dioxide is given off in the reaction.
25. Assertion: Calcium chloride is an ionic compound.
Reason: Metals and non-metals react by mutual transfer of electrons.
26. Assertion: Anodising is a method to prevent metal from corrosion.
Reason: Anodising is a process of coating iron with a layer of zinc.
27. Assertion: The oxides of sulphur and phosphorus are acidic in nature.
Reason: Metal oxides are basic in nature
28. Assertion: On reacting with water, calcium starts floating over water.
Reason: Calcium reacts with cold water at room temperature.
29.Test tube P: A small amount of distilled water was added to the tube.
Test tube Q: Boiled distilled water was added to the tube. (There is very little
dissolved oxygen in boiled water). Some oil was added at the top to prevent air from
entering the water.
Test tube R: ½ test tube of salt water was added to the tube.
Test tube S: Calcium chloride-a drying agent was added to the tube to absorb the
moisture and the tube was sealed with a stopper.
This is shown in the figure below29.Q. In which of the following case will the nails in all the test tubes NOT get
corroded? (1m)
a) If the nails were made of copper.
b) if the nails were coated with zinc.
c) If the nails were made of pure iron.
a. if the iron contained a small amount of carbon.
30.Q In which of the tubes shown will the nail get rusted? (1m)
a) In tube P only
b) in tubes P and R only
c) in tubes P, Q and R only
d) in all tubes - P, Q, R and S
Read the given passage carefully, understand the concept and answer the following
questions: (1 x 5 = 5m)
Ionic compounds are also known as electrovalent compounds. The strong force of
attraction developed between the oppositely charged ions is known as ionic bond. It
consists of ions. Ionic compounds are usually crystalline solids. These compounds
have high melting point and boiling points. That is, ionic compounds are non-volatile.
These compounds conduct electricity when dissolved in water or melted. These
compounds are usually soluble in water and insoluble in organic solvents.
31. Which of the following property is not of ionic compound?
a) Solubility in water
b) High melting and boiling points
c) Electrical conductivity in solid state
d) Electrical conductivity in molten state
32. Element ‘X’ reacts with element ‘Y’ to form a compound ‘Z’. During the formation
of compound ‘Z’, atoms of ‘X’ lose one electron each whereas atoms of ‘Y’ gain one
electron each. Which of the following property is not shown by compound ‘Z’?
a) high melting point
b) low melting point
c) occurrence as solid
d) conduction of electricity in molten state
33. The atomic number of four elements P, Q, R, S are 6, 8, 10 and 12 respectively.
The two elements which can react to form ionic compounds are:
a) P and S
b) Q and R
c) P and R
d) Q and S
34. Which of the following compounds is not ionic in nature?
a) Lithium Chloride
b) Sodium Chloride
c) Calcium Chloride
d) Carbon tetrachloride
35.The atomic number of an element ‘X’ is 16. The symbol of ion formed by an atom
of this element will be:
a) X^2+
b) X^3+
c) X^2-
d) X^-1
Study the given table and answer any four questions from (36) to (40): (1X5=5m)
A student took the samples of four metals A, B, C and D and added following
solutions one by one. The results obtained have been tabulated as follows:
36Q. Choose the most reactive metal:
a) A
b) B
c) C
d) D
37Q. Which of the following will displace Cu from its solution of sulphate?
a) A only
b) B only
c) Both A and B
d) D
38Q. Which is the correct decreasing order of reactivity?
a) B>A> C>D
b) A > B >D>C
c) B> A > D>C
d) D > B > A>C
39Q. The gas produced when dil. HCI is added to a reactive metal:
a) Oxygen
b) Nitrogen
c) Hydrogen
d) Carbon dioxide
40Q. On the basis of sequence of reactions, identify the most and least reactive
elements.
A+ BX- ------ >AX + B
C+AY-------- > CY + A
a) Most reactive: C; Least reactive: B
b) Most reactive: B; Least reactive: C
c) Most reactive: A; Least reactive: B
d) Most reactive: B; Least reactive: A
Cyclic 3 maths question paper 10th cbse
Cyclic 3 maths triangles and polynomials
1.. Which of the following triangles have the same side lengths?
(a) Scalene
(b) Isosceles
(c) Equilateral
(d) None
2. Area of an equilateral triangle with side length a is equal to:
(a) √3/2a
(b) √3/2a2
(c) √3/4 a2
(d) √3/4 a
3. D and E are the midpoints of side AB and AC of a triangle ABC, respectively and BC = 6 cm. If DE || BC, then the length (in cm) of DE is:
(a) 2.5
(b) 3
(c) 5
(d) 6
4. The diagonals of a rhombus are 16 cm and 12 cm, in length. The side of rhombus in length is:
(a) 20 cm
(b) 8 cm
(c) 10 cm
(d) 9 cm
5. Corresponding sides of two similar triangles are in the ratio of 2:3. If the area of small triangle is 48 sq.cm, then the area of large triangle is:
(a) 230 sq.cm.
(b) 106 sq.cm
(c) 107 sq.cm.
(d) 108 sq.cm
6. If perimeter of a triangle is 100 cm and the length of two sides are 30 cm and 40 cm, the length of third side will be:
(a) 30 cm
(b) 40 cm
(c) 50 cm
(d) 60 cm
7. If triangles ABC and DEF are similar and AB=4 cm, DE=6 cm, EF=9 cm and FD=12 cm, the perimeter of triangle is:
(a) 22 cm
(b) 20 cm
(c) 21 cm
(d) 18cm
8. The height of an equilateral triangle of side 5 cm is:
(a) 4.33 cm
(b) 3.9 cm
(c) 5 cm
(d) 4 cm
9. If ABC and DEF are two triangles and AB/DE=BC/FD, then the two triangles are similar if
(a) ∠A=∠F
(b) ∠B=∠D
(c) ∠A=∠D
(d) ∠B=∠E
10. Sides of two similar triangles are in the ratio 4: 9. Areas of these triangles are in the ratio
(a) 2: 3
(b) 4: 9
(c) 81: 16
(d) 16: 81
11. Which of the following are not similar figures?
(a) Circles
(b) Squares
(c) Equilateral triangles
(d) Isosceles triangles
12. In triangle ABC, ∠BAC = 90° and AD ⊥ BC. Then
(A) BD . CD = BC2
(B) AB . AC = BC2
(C) BD . CD = AD2
(D) AB . AC = AD2
13. If in two triangles ABC and PQR, AB/QR = BC/PR = CA/PQ, then
(a) ΔPQR ~ ΔCAB
(b) ΔPQR ~ ΔABC
(c) ΔCBA ~ ΔPQR
(d) ΔBCA ~ ΔPQR
14. In triangles ABC and DEF, ∠B = ∠E, ∠F = ∠C and AB = 3 DE. Then, the two triangles are
(a) congruent but not similar
(b) similar but not congruent
(c) neither congruent nor similar
(d) congruent as well as similar
15. It is given that ΔABC ~ ΔPQR, with BC/QR = 1/4 then, ar(ΔPRQ)/ar(ABC) is equal to
(a) 16
(b) 4
(c) 1/4
(d) 1/16
16. It is given that ΔABC ~ ΔDFE, ∠A = 30°, ∠C = 50°, AB = 5 cm, AC = 8 cm and DF = 7.5 cm. Then, the following is true:
(a) DE = 12 cm, ∠F = 50°
(b) DE = 12 cm, ∠F = 100°
(c) EF = 12 cm, ∠D = 100°
(d) EF = 12 cm, ∠D = 30°
17. If triangle ABC is similar to triangle DEF, then,
(a) AB/FD = BC/EF = CA/DE
(b) AB/DE = BC/DF = CA/EF
(c) AB/DE = BC/EF = CA/FD
(d) AB/BC = CA/DE = EF/FD
18. Which of the following is not a similarity criterion for two triangles?
(a) AAA
(b) SAS
(c) SSS
(d) ASA
19.The zeroes of x2–2x –8 are:
(a) (2,-4)
(b) (4,-2)
(c) (-2,-2)
(d) (-4,-4)
20. If the zeroes of the quadratic polynomial ax2+bx+c, c≠0 are equal, then
(a) c and b have opposite signs
(b) c and a have opposite signs
(c) c and b have same signs
(d) c and a have same signs
21. The degree of the polynomial, x4 – x2 +2 is
(a) 2
(b) 4
(c) 1
(d) 0
22. If one of the zeroes of cubic polynomial is x3+ax2+bx+c is -1, then product of other two zeroes is:
(a) b-a-1
(b) b-a+1
(c) a-b+1
(d) a+b+1
23. If p(x) is a polynomial of degree one and p(a) = 0, then a is said to be:
(a) Zero of p(x)
(b) Value of p(x)
(c) Constant of p(x)
(d) None of the above
24. Zeroes of a polynomial can be expressed graphically. Number of zeroes of polynomial is equal to number of points where the graph of polynomial is:
(a) Intersects x-axis
(b) Intersects y-axis
(c) Intersects y-axis or x-axis
(d) None of the above
25. A polynomial of degree n has:
(a) Only one zero
(b) At least n zeroes
(c) More than n zeroes
(d) At most n zeroes
26. The number of polynomials having zeroes as -2 and 5 is:
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) More than 3
27. Zeroes of p(x) = x2-27 are:
(a) ±9√3
(b) ±3√3
(c) ±7√3
(d) None of
28. Given that two of the zeroes of the cubic polynomial ax3 + bx2 + cx + d are 0, the third zero is
(a) -b/a
(b) b/a
(c) c/a
(d) -d/a
29. If one zero of the quadratic polynomial x2 + 3x + k is 2, then the value of k is
(a) 10
(b) –10
(c) 5
(d) –5
30. A quadratic polynomial, whose zeroes are –3 and 4, is
(a) x² – x + 12
(b) x² + x + 12
(c) (x²/2) – (x/2) – 6
(d) 2x² + 2x – 24
31. The zeroes of the quadratic polynomial x2 + 99x + 127 are
(a) both positive
(b) both negative
(c) one positive and one negative
(d) both equal
32. The zeroes of the quadratic polynomial x2 + 7x + 10 are
(a) -4, -3
(b) 2, 5
(c) -2, -5
(d) -2, 5
33. If the discriminant of a quadratic polynomial, D > 0, then the polynomial has
(a) two real and equal roots
(b) two real and unequal roots
(c) imaginary roots
(d) no root
34. If on division of a polynomial p(x) by a polynomial g(x), the quotient is zero, then the relation between the degrees of p(x) and g(x) is
(a) degree of p(x) < degree of g(x)
(b) degree of p(x) = degree of g(x)
(c) degree of p(x) > degree of g(x)
(d) nothing can be said about degrees of p(x) and g(x)
35. By division algorithm of polynomials, p(x) =
(a) g(x) × q(x) + r(x)
(b) g(x) × q(x) – r(x)
(c) g(x) × q(x) × r(x)
(d) g(x) + q(x) + r(x)
36. The product of the zeroes of the cubic polynomial ax3 + bx2 + cx + d is
(a) -b/a
(b) c/a
(c) -d/a
(d) -c/a
37. If the graph of a polynomial intersects the x-axis at three points, then it contains ____ zeroes.
(a) Three
(b) Two
(c) Four
(d) More than three
Case study
CASE STUDY 1:
The below picture are few natural examples of parabolic shape which is represented by a quadratic polynomial. A parabolic arch is an arch in the shape of a parabola. In structures, their curve represents an efficient method of load, and so can be found in bridges and in architecture in a variety of forms.
1.. Which of the following triangles have the same side lengths?
(a) Scalene
(b) Isosceles
(c) Equilateral
(d) None
2. Area of an equilateral triangle with side length a is equal to:
(a) √3/2a
(b) √3/2a2
(c) √3/4 a2
(d) √3/4 a
3. D and E are the midpoints of side AB and AC of a triangle ABC, respectively and BC = 6 cm. If DE || BC, then the length (in cm) of DE is:
(a) 2.5
(b) 3
(c) 5
(d) 6
4. The diagonals of a rhombus are 16 cm and 12 cm, in length. The side of rhombus in length is:
(a) 20 cm
(b) 8 cm
(c) 10 cm
(d) 9 cm
5. Corresponding sides of two similar triangles are in the ratio of 2:3. If the area of small triangle is 48 sq.cm, then the area of large triangle is:
(a) 230 sq.cm.
(b) 106 sq.cm
(c) 107 sq.cm.
(d) 108 sq.cm
6. If perimeter of a triangle is 100 cm and the length of two sides are 30 cm and 40 cm, the length of third side will be:
(a) 30 cm
(b) 40 cm
(c) 50 cm
(d) 60 cm
7. If triangles ABC and DEF are similar and AB=4 cm, DE=6 cm, EF=9 cm and FD=12 cm, the perimeter of triangle is:
(a) 22 cm
(b) 20 cm
(c) 21 cm
(d) 18cm
8. The height of an equilateral triangle of side 5 cm is:
(a) 4.33 cm
(b) 3.9 cm
(c) 5 cm
(d) 4 cm
9. If ABC and DEF are two triangles and AB/DE=BC/FD, then the two triangles are similar if
(a) ∠A=∠F
(b) ∠B=∠D
(c) ∠A=∠D
(d) ∠B=∠E
10. Sides of two similar triangles are in the ratio 4: 9. Areas of these triangles are in the ratio
(a) 2: 3
(b) 4: 9
(c) 81: 16
(d) 16: 81
11. Which of the following are not similar figures?
(a) Circles
(b) Squares
(c) Equilateral triangles
(d) Isosceles triangles
12. In triangle ABC, ∠BAC = 90° and AD ⊥ BC. Then
(A) BD . CD = BC2
(B) AB . AC = BC2
(C) BD . CD = AD2
(D) AB . AC = AD2
13. If in two triangles ABC and PQR, AB/QR = BC/PR = CA/PQ, then
(a) ΔPQR ~ ΔCAB
(b) ΔPQR ~ ΔABC
(c) ΔCBA ~ ΔPQR
(d) ΔBCA ~ ΔPQR
14. In triangles ABC and DEF, ∠B = ∠E, ∠F = ∠C and AB = 3 DE. Then, the two triangles are
(a) congruent but not similar
(b) similar but not congruent
(c) neither congruent nor similar
(d) congruent as well as similar
15. It is given that ΔABC ~ ΔPQR, with BC/QR = 1/4 then, ar(ΔPRQ)/ar(ABC) is equal to
(a) 16
(b) 4
(c) 1/4
(d) 1/16
16. It is given that ΔABC ~ ΔDFE, ∠A = 30°, ∠C = 50°, AB = 5 cm, AC = 8 cm and DF = 7.5 cm. Then, the following is true:
(a) DE = 12 cm, ∠F = 50°
(b) DE = 12 cm, ∠F = 100°
(c) EF = 12 cm, ∠D = 100°
(d) EF = 12 cm, ∠D = 30°
17. If triangle ABC is similar to triangle DEF, then,
(a) AB/FD = BC/EF = CA/DE
(b) AB/DE = BC/DF = CA/EF
(c) AB/DE = BC/EF = CA/FD
(d) AB/BC = CA/DE = EF/FD
18. Which of the following is not a similarity criterion for two triangles?
(a) AAA
(b) SAS
(c) SSS
(d) ASA
19.The zeroes of x2–2x –8 are:
(a) (2,-4)
(b) (4,-2)
(c) (-2,-2)
(d) (-4,-4)
20. If the zeroes of the quadratic polynomial ax2+bx+c, c≠0 are equal, then
(a) c and b have opposite signs
(b) c and a have opposite signs
(c) c and b have same signs
(d) c and a have same signs
21. The degree of the polynomial, x4 – x2 +2 is
(a) 2
(b) 4
(c) 1
(d) 0
22. If one of the zeroes of cubic polynomial is x3+ax2+bx+c is -1, then product of other two zeroes is:
(a) b-a-1
(b) b-a+1
(c) a-b+1
(d) a+b+1
23. If p(x) is a polynomial of degree one and p(a) = 0, then a is said to be:
(a) Zero of p(x)
(b) Value of p(x)
(c) Constant of p(x)
(d) None of the above
24. Zeroes of a polynomial can be expressed graphically. Number of zeroes of polynomial is equal to number of points where the graph of polynomial is:
(a) Intersects x-axis
(b) Intersects y-axis
(c) Intersects y-axis or x-axis
(d) None of the above
25. A polynomial of degree n has:
(a) Only one zero
(b) At least n zeroes
(c) More than n zeroes
(d) At most n zeroes
26. The number of polynomials having zeroes as -2 and 5 is:
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) More than 3
27. Zeroes of p(x) = x2-27 are:
(a) ±9√3
(b) ±3√3
(c) ±7√3
(d) None of
28. Given that two of the zeroes of the cubic polynomial ax3 + bx2 + cx + d are 0, the third zero is
(a) -b/a
(b) b/a
(c) c/a
(d) -d/a
29. If one zero of the quadratic polynomial x2 + 3x + k is 2, then the value of k is
(a) 10
(b) –10
(c) 5
(d) –5
30. A quadratic polynomial, whose zeroes are –3 and 4, is
(a) x² – x + 12
(b) x² + x + 12
(c) (x²/2) – (x/2) – 6
(d) 2x² + 2x – 24
31. The zeroes of the quadratic polynomial x2 + 99x + 127 are
(a) both positive
(b) both negative
(c) one positive and one negative
(d) both equal
32. The zeroes of the quadratic polynomial x2 + 7x + 10 are
(a) -4, -3
(b) 2, 5
(c) -2, -5
(d) -2, 5
33. If the discriminant of a quadratic polynomial, D > 0, then the polynomial has
(a) two real and equal roots
(b) two real and unequal roots
(c) imaginary roots
(d) no root
34. If on division of a polynomial p(x) by a polynomial g(x), the quotient is zero, then the relation between the degrees of p(x) and g(x) is
(a) degree of p(x) < degree of g(x)
(b) degree of p(x) = degree of g(x)
(c) degree of p(x) > degree of g(x)
(d) nothing can be said about degrees of p(x) and g(x)
35. By division algorithm of polynomials, p(x) =
(a) g(x) × q(x) + r(x)
(b) g(x) × q(x) – r(x)
(c) g(x) × q(x) × r(x)
(d) g(x) + q(x) + r(x)
36. The product of the zeroes of the cubic polynomial ax3 + bx2 + cx + d is
(a) -b/a
(b) c/a
(c) -d/a
(d) -c/a
37. If the graph of a polynomial intersects the x-axis at three points, then it contains ____ zeroes.
(a) Three
(b) Two
(c) Four
(d) More than three
Case study
CASE STUDY 1:
The below picture are few natural examples of parabolic shape which is represented by a quadratic polynomial. A parabolic arch is an arch in the shape of a parabola. In structures, their curve represents an efficient method of load, and so can be found in bridges and in architecture in a variety of forms.
38. In the standard form of quadratic polynomial, ax2 + bx + c, a, b and c are
a) All are Polynomials.
) All are rational numbers.
c) ‘a’ is a non zero real number and b and c are any Polynomials.
d) All are integers
39. If the roots of the quadratic polynomial are equal, where the discriminant D = b2 – 4ac, then
a) D > 0
b) D < 0
c) D ≥ 0
d) D = 0
40. If α and 1/α are the zeroes of the quadratic polynomial 2x2 – x + 8k, then k is
a) 4
b) 1/4
c) –1/4
d) 2
Test no 24 8th cbse
Test no 24 9th cbse
11 to 14 questions
15 to 17 sums
18 to 20 questions
CYCLIC TEST 2 CHEMICAL REACTIONS
Cyclic test 2 chemical reactions
Science 40 marks
Question 1.
Which of the following reactions involves the combination of two elements :-
(a)CaO + CO2 -> CaCO3
(b)4Na + O2 -> 2Na2O
(c)SO2 +(1/2)O2 -> SO3
(d)NH3 + HCI -> NH4CI
Question 2.
When hydrogen sulphide gas is passed through a blue solution of copper sulphate, a black precipitate of copper sulphate is obtained and the sulphuric acid so formed remains in the solution. The reaction is an example of :-
(a)A combination reaction
(b)A displacement reaction
(c)A decomposition reaction
(d)A double decomposition reaction
Question 3.
What happens when copper rod is dipped in iron sulphate solution :-
(a)Copper displaces iron
(b)Blue color of copper sulphate solution is obtained
(c)No reaction takes place
(d)Reaction is exothermic
Question 4.
A student added dilute HCI to a test tube containing zinc granules and made following observations :-
(a)The zinc surface became dull and black
(b)A gas evolved which burnt with a pop sound
(c)The solution remained colorless
(d)The solution becomes green in color.
Question 5.
A dilute solution of sodium carbonate was added to two test tubes one containing dilute HCI (A) and the other containing dilute NaOH (B). the correct observation was :-
(a)A brown colored gas liberated in test tube A
(b)A brown colored gas liberated in test tube B
(c)A colorless gas liberated in test tube A
(d)A colorless gas liberated in test tube B
Question 6.
A balanced chemical equation is in accordance with
(a)Avogadro’s law
(b)Law of multiple proportion
(c)Law of conservation of mass
(d)Law of gaseous volumes
Question 7.
The equation
Cu + xHNO3 -> Cu(NO3)2 + yNO2 + 2H2O
The values of x and y are
(a)3 and 5
(b)8 and 6
(c)4 and 2
(d)7 and 1
Question 8.
Zn + H2SO4(dil) ->ZnSO4 + H2
Above reaction is
(a)Decomposition reaction
(b)Single displacement reaction
(c)Combination reaction
(d)Synthesis reaction
Question 9.
The reaction in which two compounds exchange their ions to form two new compounds is
(a)A displacement reaction
(b)A decomposition reaction
(c)An isomerization reaction
(d)A double displacement reaction
Question 10.
When the gases sulphur dioxide and hydrogen sulphide mix in the presence of water, the reaction is
SO2 + 2H2S -> 2H2O + 3S. here hydrogen sulphide is acting as
(a)An oxidizing agent
(b)A reducing agent
(c)A dehydrating agent
(d)A catalyst
Question 11.
CuO + H2 ->H2O + Cu, reaction is an example of
(a)Redox reaction
(b)Synthesis reaction
(c)Neutralization
(d)Analysis reaction
Question 12.
A substance which oxidized itself and reduces other is known as
(a)Oxidizing agent
(b)Reducing agent
(c)Both of these
(d)None of these
Question 13.
A redox reaction is one in which
(a)Both the substance are reduced
(b)Both the substance are oxidized
(c)An acid is neutralized by the base
(d)One substance is oxidized while the other is reduced
Question 14.
In the following equation:
Na2CO3 + xHCI -> 2NaCI +CO2 + H2O, the value of x is
(a)1
(b)2
(c)3
(d)4
Question 15.
In the equation, NaOH + HNO3 -> NaNO3 + H2O nitric acid is acting as
(a)An oxidizing agent
(b)An acid
(c)A nitrating agent
(d)A dehydrating agent
Question 16.
Fe203+ 2AI gives 2Fe+ Al203
The above reaction is an example of a
(a)Combination reaction
(b)Double displacement reaction
(c)Decomposition reaction
(d)Displacement reaction
Question 17.
White silver chloride in sunlight turns to
(a)Grey
(b)Yellow
(c)Remain white
(d)Red
Question 18.
Black and white photography uses
(a)Decomposition of silver chloride
(b)Decomposition of silver bromide
(c)Both
(d)None of these
Question 19.
When copper powder is heated it gets coated with
(a)Black copper oxide
(b)Yellow copper oxide
(c)Red copper oxide
(d)None of these
Question 20.
Combination of phosphorus and oxygen is an example of
(a)Oxidation
(b)Reduction
(c)Rancidity
(d)None of these
Question 21.
Rusting of an iron is an example of
a)Reduction
b)Ionization
c)Oxidation
d)Dissociation
Question 22.
Which of the following does not corrode when exposed to the atmosphere-
(a)Iron
(b)Copper
(c)Gold
(d)Silver
Science 40 marks
Question 1.
Which of the following reactions involves the combination of two elements :-
(a)CaO + CO2 -> CaCO3
(b)4Na + O2 -> 2Na2O
(c)SO2 +(1/2)O2 -> SO3
(d)NH3 + HCI -> NH4CI
Question 2.
When hydrogen sulphide gas is passed through a blue solution of copper sulphate, a black precipitate of copper sulphate is obtained and the sulphuric acid so formed remains in the solution. The reaction is an example of :-
(a)A combination reaction
(b)A displacement reaction
(c)A decomposition reaction
(d)A double decomposition reaction
Question 3.
What happens when copper rod is dipped in iron sulphate solution :-
(a)Copper displaces iron
(b)Blue color of copper sulphate solution is obtained
(c)No reaction takes place
(d)Reaction is exothermic
Question 4.
A student added dilute HCI to a test tube containing zinc granules and made following observations :-
(a)The zinc surface became dull and black
(b)A gas evolved which burnt with a pop sound
(c)The solution remained colorless
(d)The solution becomes green in color.
Question 5.
A dilute solution of sodium carbonate was added to two test tubes one containing dilute HCI (A) and the other containing dilute NaOH (B). the correct observation was :-
(a)A brown colored gas liberated in test tube A
(b)A brown colored gas liberated in test tube B
(c)A colorless gas liberated in test tube A
(d)A colorless gas liberated in test tube B
Question 6.
A balanced chemical equation is in accordance with
(a)Avogadro’s law
(b)Law of multiple proportion
(c)Law of conservation of mass
(d)Law of gaseous volumes
Question 7.
The equation
Cu + xHNO3 -> Cu(NO3)2 + yNO2 + 2H2O
The values of x and y are
(a)3 and 5
(b)8 and 6
(c)4 and 2
(d)7 and 1
Question 8.
Zn + H2SO4(dil) ->ZnSO4 + H2
Above reaction is
(a)Decomposition reaction
(b)Single displacement reaction
(c)Combination reaction
(d)Synthesis reaction
Question 9.
The reaction in which two compounds exchange their ions to form two new compounds is
(a)A displacement reaction
(b)A decomposition reaction
(c)An isomerization reaction
(d)A double displacement reaction
Question 10.
When the gases sulphur dioxide and hydrogen sulphide mix in the presence of water, the reaction is
SO2 + 2H2S -> 2H2O + 3S. here hydrogen sulphide is acting as
(a)An oxidizing agent
(b)A reducing agent
(c)A dehydrating agent
(d)A catalyst
Question 11.
CuO + H2 ->H2O + Cu, reaction is an example of
(a)Redox reaction
(b)Synthesis reaction
(c)Neutralization
(d)Analysis reaction
Question 12.
A substance which oxidized itself and reduces other is known as
(a)Oxidizing agent
(b)Reducing agent
(c)Both of these
(d)None of these
Question 13.
A redox reaction is one in which
(a)Both the substance are reduced
(b)Both the substance are oxidized
(c)An acid is neutralized by the base
(d)One substance is oxidized while the other is reduced
Question 14.
In the following equation:
Na2CO3 + xHCI -> 2NaCI +CO2 + H2O, the value of x is
(a)1
(b)2
(c)3
(d)4
Question 15.
In the equation, NaOH + HNO3 -> NaNO3 + H2O nitric acid is acting as
(a)An oxidizing agent
(b)An acid
(c)A nitrating agent
(d)A dehydrating agent
Question 16.
Fe203+ 2AI gives 2Fe+ Al203
The above reaction is an example of a
(a)Combination reaction
(b)Double displacement reaction
(c)Decomposition reaction
(d)Displacement reaction
Question 17.
White silver chloride in sunlight turns to
(a)Grey
(b)Yellow
(c)Remain white
(d)Red
Question 18.
Black and white photography uses
(a)Decomposition of silver chloride
(b)Decomposition of silver bromide
(c)Both
(d)None of these
Question 19.
When copper powder is heated it gets coated with
(a)Black copper oxide
(b)Yellow copper oxide
(c)Red copper oxide
(d)None of these
Question 20.
Combination of phosphorus and oxygen is an example of
(a)Oxidation
(b)Reduction
(c)Rancidity
(d)None of these
Question 21.
Rusting of an iron is an example of
a)Reduction
b)Ionization
c)Oxidation
d)Dissociation
Question 22.
Which of the following does not corrode when exposed to the atmosphere-
(a)Iron
(b)Copper
(c)Gold
(d)Silver
Question 23.
Take about 1.0g CaCO3 in a test tube. Heat it over a flame, when a colorless gas comes out. The reaction is called a
(a)Decomposition reaction
(b)Displacement reaction
(c)Double decomposition reaction
(d)Double displacement reaction
Question 24.
Hydrogen sulphide (H2S) is a strong reducing agent. Which of the following reactions shows its reducing action
(a)Cd(NO3)2 + H2S -> CdS + 2HNO3
(b)CuSO4 + H2S -> CuS + H2SO4
(c)2FeCl3 + H2S -> 2FeCl2 + 2HCI + S
(d)Pb(NO3)2 +H2S -> PbS + 2CH3COOH
Question 25.
When P reacts with caustic soda, the products are PH3 and NaH2PO2. This reaction is an example of
(a)Oxidation
(b)Reduction
(c)Oxidation and reduction (redox)
(d)Neutralization
Question 26.
2CuI-> Cu + CuI2, the reaction is
(a)Redox
(b)Neutralization
(c)Oxidation
(d)Reduction
Question 27.
When copper turning are added to silver nitrate solution, a blue coloured solution is formed after some time. It is because, copper
(a)Displaces silver from the solution
(b)Forms a blue colored complex with AgNO3
(c)Is oxidized to Cu2+Cu2+
(d)Is reduced to Cu2+Cu2+
Question 28.
Zn2+ (aq) +2e -> Zn(s). this is
(a)Oxidation
(b)Reduction
(c)Redox reaction
(d)None of these
Q29. Assertion (A) : Decomposition of vegetable matter into compost is an example of exothermic reactions.
Reason (R) : Exothermic reaction are those reactions in which heat is evolved.
30. Assertion (A) : When HCl is added to zinc granules, a chemical reaction occurs.
Reason (R) : Evolution of a gas and change in colour indicate that the chemical reaction is taking place.
31. Assertion (A) : Calcium carbonate when heated gives calcium oxide and water.
Reason (R) : On heating calcium carbonate, decomposition reaction takes place.
32. Assertion (A) : Brown fumes are produced when lead nitrate is heated.
Reason (R) : Nitrogen dioxide gas is produced as a by product due to the decomposition of lead nitrate.
33. Assertion (A) : White silver chloride turns grey in sunlight.
Reason (R) : Decomposition of silver chloride in presence of sunlight takes place to form silver metal and chlorine gas.
34. Assertion (A): Pungent smelling gas is produced when sulphur burns in air.
Reason (R) : Sulphur trioxide is formed on reaction of sulphur with oxygen.
35. Assertion (A) : In a reaction of copper with oxygen, copper serves as a reducing agent.
Reason (R) : The substance which gains oxygen in a chemical reaction acts as a reducing agent.
CASE STUDY
Those reactions in which two compounds react by an exchange of ions to form two new compounds are called double displacement reactions. A double displacement reaction usually occurs in solution and one of the products, being insoluble, precipitate out (separates as a solid). Any reaction in which an insoluble solid (called precipitate) is formed that separates from the solution is called a precipitation reaction. The reaction in which acid or acidic oxide reacts with base or basic oxide to form salt and water is called neutralisation reaction.
For example,
2NaOH + H2SO4⟶Na2SO4 + H2O
36.. When hydrogen sulphide gas is passed through a blue solution of copper sulphate, a black precipitate of copper sulphide is obtained and the sulphuric acid so formed remains in the solution. The reaction is an example of a
(a) combination reaction
(b) displacement reaction
(c) decomposition reaction
d) double displacement reaction
(37) Which of the following is not a double displacement reaction?
(a) AgNO3(aq)+NaCl(aq)⟶AgCl(s)+NaNO3(aq)
(b) Zn(s)+H2SO4(aq)⟶ZnSO4(aq)+H2(g)
(38). Barium chloride on reaction with ammonium sulphate forms barium sulphate and ammonium chloride. Which of the following correctly represents the type of the reaction involved?
(I) Displacement reaction
(II) Precipitation reaction
(III) Combination reaction
(IV) Double displacement reaction
(a) (I) only
(b) (II) only
(c) (III) and (IV) only
(d) (II) and (l V) onlly
Those reactions in which two compounds react by an exchange of ions to form two new compounds are called double displacement reactions. A double displacement reaction usually occurs in solution and one of the products, being insoluble, precipitate out (separates as a solid). Any reaction in which an insoluble solid (called precipitate) is formed that separates from the solution is called a precipitation reaction. The reaction in which acid or acidic oxide reacts with base or basic oxide to form salt and water is called neutralisation reaction.
For example,
2NaOH + H2SO4⟶Na2SO4 + H2O
36.. When hydrogen sulphide gas is passed through a blue solution of copper sulphate, a black precipitate of copper sulphide is obtained and the sulphuric acid so formed remains in the solution. The reaction is an example of a
(a) combination reaction
(b) displacement reaction
(c) decomposition reaction
d) double displacement reaction
(37) Which of the following is not a double displacement reaction?
(a) AgNO3(aq)+NaCl(aq)⟶AgCl(s)+NaNO3(aq)
(b) Zn(s)+H2SO4(aq)⟶ZnSO4(aq)+H2(g)
(38). Barium chloride on reaction with ammonium sulphate forms barium sulphate and ammonium chloride. Which of the following correctly represents the type of the reaction involved?
(I) Displacement reaction
(II) Precipitation reaction
(III) Combination reaction
(IV) Double displacement reaction
(a) (I) only
(b) (II) only
(c) (III) and (IV) only
(d) (II) and (l V) onlly
39.Identify A in the following reaction.
AlCl3(aq)+3NH4OH(aq)⟶A+3NH4Cl(aq)
(a) AI(OH)3
AlCl3(aq)+3NH4OH(aq)⟶A+3NH4Cl(aq)
(a) AI(OH)3
b) Al2 O3
(c) AIH3
(d) AIN
(40). Consider the following reaction,
BaCl2+Na2SO4⟶BaSO4+2NaCl
identify the precipitate in the reaction,
(a) BaCl2
(40). Consider the following reaction,
BaCl2+Na2SO4⟶BaSO4+2NaCl
identify the precipitate in the reaction,
(a) BaCl2
(b) BaSO4
(c) Na2sO4
D.NaCl
Exam completed
Test no 23
9th cbse
9th cbase test no 23
1.………….is a single cell organism
a) Human being
b) Cactus
c) Amoeba
d) Rat
2.) ……………… cell carry message in our body to brain and brain to body
a) Liver cell
b) Ovum
c) Nephron
d) Nerve cell
3.) In plants, ……………… tissues conduct food and water from one part of the plant to other parts
a) Transport
b) Circulatory
c) Vascular
d) None of them
4.) Cluster of cell called……………
a) Cells
b) Tissues
c) Organ
d) None of them
5.) Phloem and muscles are all example of ……………
a) Cells
b) Tissues
c) Organ
d) None of them
6.) Dividing tissues present in plant called……………….
a) Parenchyma tissue
b) Meristematic tissue
c) Cell
d) None of them
7.) ………………….. is present at the growing tips of stem and roots and increases its length
a) Parenchyma tissue
b) Meristematic tissue
c) Apical meristem
d) Roots
8.) …………………. Seen in some plants is located near the node
a) Apical meristem
b) Intercalary meristem
c) Paranchyama tissues
d) Roots
9.) Meristematic tissues having dense ……………………..
a) Cytoplasm
b) Root
c) Nucleus
d) Chromosomes
10.) Differentiation leads to the development of various types of …………………
a) Parenchyma tissue
b) Meristematic tissue
c) Permanent tissue
d) None of them
11.) ……………… tissues are loosely held and stores food in plant
a) Parenchyma tissue
b) Meristematic tissue
c) Permanent tissue
d) None of them
12.) In aquatic plants large air cavities are present in paranchyama, this called as………
a) Chlorenchyma
b) Aerenchyma
c) Sclerenchyma
d) Merstimatic tissue
13.) Which tissue responsible makes plant hard and stiff
a) Chlorenchyma
b) Aerenchyma
c) Sclerenchyma
d) Merstimatic tissue
14.) Sclerenchyma tissue are long, narrow and thickened due to……………
a) Stroma
b) Lignin
c) Thick walls
d) None of them
15.) Outermost layer of cells in plant called
a) Stroma
b) Lignin
c) Thick walls
d) Epidermis
16.) Most epidermal cells are …………….. shape
a) Narrow
b) Flattened
c) Long
d) Tall
17.) Small pores present epidermis of leaf called……………..
a) Stomata
b) Lignin
c) Thick walls
d) Epidermis
18.) Stomata are enclosed by two kidney shaped cells called ………………….
a) Nerve cell
b) Guard cell
c) Liver cell
d) Ovum
19.) Epidermis with thick waxy coating of cut in on its outer surface were found in
a) Aquatic plants
b) Desert plants
c) Terrestrial plants
d) Pine trees
20.) Cork is compactly arranged without intercellular spaces with special type of substance called………..
a) Stroma
b) Lignin
c) Thick walls
d) Suberin
21.) Phloem is ……………….. tissue
a) Simple
b) Complex
c) Reverse
d) None of them
22.) Heart can contract and relax by ……………… movement
a) Muscular
b) Fibres
c) Both a and b
d) None of them
23.) Blood is type of ………………… tissue
a) Paranchyma
b) Sclerenchyma
c) Transporting
d) Connective
24.) Muscle form from……………… tissue
a) Contracting
b) Relaxing
c) Connective
d) Muscular
25.) …………………. Tissues having small amount of cementing material between intercellular spaces in animal tissue
a) Epithelial
b) Sclerenchyma
c) Transporting
d) Connective
26.) Simple flat kind of epithelium called…………….
a) Simple epithelium
b) Squamous epithelium
c) Sponge epithelium
d) All of the
27.) Oesophagus, lining of mouth are covered with…………
a) Simple epithelium
b) Squamous epithelium
c) Sponge epithelium
d) All of the above
28.) Hair like projection present in respiratory tract known as
a) Stroma
b) Lignin
c) Cilia
d) Hairs
29.) ………………………. Forms the lining of kidney tubules and ducts of salivary glands which provides mechanical support
a) Simple epithelium
b) Squamous epithelium
c) Sponge epithelium
d) Cuboidal epithelium
30.) If the epithelial tissue folds inward that time………………. Is formed
a) Gland
b) Simple gland
c) Multicellular gland
d) None of them
31. The value obtained on simplifying (√5 + √6)^2
(a) 12 + 5√30
(b) 13 + 2√33
(c) 11 - 2√30
(d) 11 + 2√30
32.. Find the remainder when 6799 is divided bt 7
(a) 1
(b) 6
(c) 4
(d) 2
33. All the integers are
(a) whole numbers
(b) rational numbers
(c) irrational numbers
(d) natural numbers
34. The rational number between 1 and 2 is
(a) 3/2
(b) 7/2
(c) 5/2
(d) 1/2
35. (256)3/4 = ____
(a) 128
(b) 32
(c) 26
(d) 64
36. Between 3 and 4 there are
(a) 10,000 rational numbers
(b) 1000 rational numbers
(c) Infinitely many rational numbers
(d) 500 rational numbers
37. The value of 491/2 is equal to———
(a) 1/49
(b) 49
(c) 7
(d) 1/7
38. Which of the following is an irrational number ?
(a) 4/55
(b) 2.31312345….
(c) 1.404040…..
(d) 1.11
39. Which of the following statement is true
(a) x0 = 1/x
(b) x0 = x
(c) x0 = 0
(d) x0 = 1
40. Which of the following statement about real numbers is false ?
(a) Closed with respect to operation of algebra
(b) Associative law of multiplication
(c) Distributive law of multiplication with respect to addition
(d) Closed with respect to commutative law of addition
41. A rational number between √3 and √5 is
(a) 1/2(√3 -√ 5)
(b) 1/2(√3 + √5)
(c) 2.1
(d) 3.1
42. Which of the following statements is false?
(a) Rational numbers have a terminating or non terminating repeating decimal form.
(b) Irrational numbers can be written in the form p/q where q is non zero and both p, q are integers
(c) Rational numbers can be written in the form p/q where q is non zero and both p,q are integers
(d) Every number on the number line is either rational or irrational, there’s no third alternative
43. The HCF and LCM of two numbers are 33 and 264 respectively. When the first number is completely divided by 2 the quotient is 33. The other number is:
(a) 66
(b) 130
(c) 132
(d) 196
44. (2√3 +√3) is equal to
(a) 2√6
(b) 6
(c) 3√3
(d) 4√6
45. The ratio of the circumference of a circle to the diameter of the circle is.
(a) An integer
(b) A rational number
(c) An irrational number
(d) A whole number
46. Insert one rational number between 2 and 3.
(a) (2+3)/2
(b) (2-3)/2
(c) (2 x 3)/2.
(d) 2 x 2 + 3 x 3
47. p/q is a rational number, so p and q must be
(a) Any two integers
(b) One of them positive and the other negative
(c) Both natural numbers
(d) Both integers but q must be non zero
48. Which of the following is not a rational number:
(a) √2
(b) √4
(c) √9
(d) √16
49. If a = 1/ (3-2√2) & b = 1/ ( 3+2√2) then the value of a2 +b2 is :-
(a) 34
(b) 35
(c) 36
(d) 37
50. The least number that is divisible by all the numbers from 1 to 10 (both inclusive) is
(a) 10
(b) 100
(c) 504
(d) 2520
8th cbse 23 test
1.………….is a single cell organism
a) Human being
b) Cactus
c) Amoeba
d) Rat
2.) ……………… cell carry message in our body to brain and brain to body
a) Liver cell
b) Ovum
c) Nephron
d) Nerve cell
3.) In plants, ……………… tissues conduct food and water from one part of the plant to other parts
a) Transport
b) Circulatory
c) Vascular
d) None of them
4.) Cluster of cell called……………
a) Cells
b) Tissues
c) Organ
d) None of them
5.) Phloem and muscles are all example of ……………
a) Cells
b) Tissues
c) Organ
d) None of them
6.) Dividing tissues present in plant called……………….
a) Parenchyma tissue
b) Meristematic tissue
c) Cell
d) None of them
7.) ………………….. is present at the growing tips of stem and roots and increases its length
a) Parenchyma tissue
b) Meristematic tissue
c) Apical meristem
d) Roots
8.) …………………. Seen in some plants is located near the node
a) Apical meristem
b) Intercalary meristem
c) Paranchyama tissues
d) Roots
9.) Meristematic tissues having dense ……………………..
a) Cytoplasm
b) Root
c) Nucleus
d) Chromosomes
10.) Differentiation leads to the development of various types of …………………
a) Parenchyma tissue
b) Meristematic tissue
c) Permanent tissue
d) None of them
11.) ……………… tissues are loosely held and stores food in plant
a) Parenchyma tissue
b) Meristematic tissue
c) Permanent tissue
d) None of them
12.) In aquatic plants large air cavities are present in paranchyama, this called as………
a) Chlorenchyma
b) Aerenchyma
c) Sclerenchyma
d) Merstimatic tissue
13.) Which tissue responsible makes plant hard and stiff
a) Chlorenchyma
b) Aerenchyma
c) Sclerenchyma
d) Merstimatic tissue
14.) Sclerenchyma tissue are long, narrow and thickened due to……………
a) Stroma
b) Lignin
c) Thick walls
d) None of them
15.) Outermost layer of cells in plant called
a) Stroma
b) Lignin
c) Thick walls
d) Epidermis
16.) Most epidermal cells are …………….. shape
a) Narrow
b) Flattened
c) Long
d) Tall
17.) Small pores present epidermis of leaf called……………..
a) Stomata
b) Lignin
c) Thick walls
d) Epidermis
18.) Stomata are enclosed by two kidney shaped cells called ………………….
a) Nerve cell
b) Guard cell
c) Liver cell
d) Ovum
19.) Epidermis with thick waxy coating of cut in on its outer surface were found in
a) Aquatic plants
b) Desert plants
c) Terrestrial plants
d) Pine trees
20.) Cork is compactly arranged without intercellular spaces with special type of substance called………..
a) Stroma
b) Lignin
c) Thick walls
d) Suberin
21.) Phloem is ……………….. tissue
a) Simple
b) Complex
c) Reverse
d) None of them
22.) Heart can contract and relax by ……………… movement
a) Muscular
b) Fibres
c) Both a and b
d) None of them
23.) Blood is type of ………………… tissue
a) Paranchyma
b) Sclerenchyma
c) Transporting
d) Connective
24.) Muscle form from……………… tissue
a) Contracting
b) Relaxing
c) Connective
d) Muscular
25.) …………………. Tissues having small amount of cementing material between intercellular spaces in animal tissue
a) Epithelial
b) Sclerenchyma
c) Transporting
d) Connective
26.) Simple flat kind of epithelium called…………….
a) Simple epithelium
b) Squamous epithelium
c) Sponge epithelium
d) All of the
27.) Oesophagus, lining of mouth are covered with…………
a) Simple epithelium
b) Squamous epithelium
c) Sponge epithelium
d) All of the above
28.) Hair like projection present in respiratory tract known as
a) Stroma
b) Lignin
c) Cilia
d) Hairs
29.) ………………………. Forms the lining of kidney tubules and ducts of salivary glands which provides mechanical support
a) Simple epithelium
b) Squamous epithelium
c) Sponge epithelium
d) Cuboidal epithelium
30.) If the epithelial tissue folds inward that time………………. Is formed
a) Gland
b) Simple gland
c) Multicellular gland
d) None of them
31. The value obtained on simplifying (√5 + √6)^2
(a) 12 + 5√30
(b) 13 + 2√33
(c) 11 - 2√30
(d) 11 + 2√30
32.. Find the remainder when 6799 is divided bt 7
(a) 1
(b) 6
(c) 4
(d) 2
33. All the integers are
(a) whole numbers
(b) rational numbers
(c) irrational numbers
(d) natural numbers
34. The rational number between 1 and 2 is
(a) 3/2
(b) 7/2
(c) 5/2
(d) 1/2
35. (256)3/4 = ____
(a) 128
(b) 32
(c) 26
(d) 64
36. Between 3 and 4 there are
(a) 10,000 rational numbers
(b) 1000 rational numbers
(c) Infinitely many rational numbers
(d) 500 rational numbers
37. The value of 491/2 is equal to———
(a) 1/49
(b) 49
(c) 7
(d) 1/7
38. Which of the following is an irrational number ?
(a) 4/55
(b) 2.31312345….
(c) 1.404040…..
(d) 1.11
39. Which of the following statement is true
(a) x0 = 1/x
(b) x0 = x
(c) x0 = 0
(d) x0 = 1
40. Which of the following statement about real numbers is false ?
(a) Closed with respect to operation of algebra
(b) Associative law of multiplication
(c) Distributive law of multiplication with respect to addition
(d) Closed with respect to commutative law of addition
41. A rational number between √3 and √5 is
(a) 1/2(√3 -√ 5)
(b) 1/2(√3 + √5)
(c) 2.1
(d) 3.1
42. Which of the following statements is false?
(a) Rational numbers have a terminating or non terminating repeating decimal form.
(b) Irrational numbers can be written in the form p/q where q is non zero and both p, q are integers
(c) Rational numbers can be written in the form p/q where q is non zero and both p,q are integers
(d) Every number on the number line is either rational or irrational, there’s no third alternative
43. The HCF and LCM of two numbers are 33 and 264 respectively. When the first number is completely divided by 2 the quotient is 33. The other number is:
(a) 66
(b) 130
(c) 132
(d) 196
44. (2√3 +√3) is equal to
(a) 2√6
(b) 6
(c) 3√3
(d) 4√6
45. The ratio of the circumference of a circle to the diameter of the circle is.
(a) An integer
(b) A rational number
(c) An irrational number
(d) A whole number
46. Insert one rational number between 2 and 3.
(a) (2+3)/2
(b) (2-3)/2
(c) (2 x 3)/2.
(d) 2 x 2 + 3 x 3
47. p/q is a rational number, so p and q must be
(a) Any two integers
(b) One of them positive and the other negative
(c) Both natural numbers
(d) Both integers but q must be non zero
48. Which of the following is not a rational number:
(a) √2
(b) √4
(c) √9
(d) √16
49. If a = 1/ (3-2√2) & b = 1/ ( 3+2√2) then the value of a2 +b2 is :-
(a) 34
(b) 35
(c) 36
(d) 37
50. The least number that is divisible by all the numbers from 1 to 10 (both inclusive) is
(a) 10
(b) 100
(c) 504
(d) 2520
8th cbse 23 test
Test no 22
8TH CBSE 100 marks 15th August
9th cbse
Test no 22
15th August
9th class 22nd test 15th August
1.Which of the following tissues has dead cells?
(a) Parenchyma
(b) Sclerenchyma
(c) Collenchyma
(d) Epithelial tissue
2.Find out incorrect sentence.
(a) Parenchymatous tissues have intercellular spaces.
(b) Collenchymatous tissues are irregularly thickened at corners.
(c) Apical and intercalary meristems are permanent tissues.
(d) Meristematic tissues, in its early stage, lack vacuoles.
3.Girth of stem increases due to
(a) apical meristem
(b) lateral meristem
(c) intercalary meristem
(d) vertical meristem
4.Which cell does not have perforated cell wall?
(a) Tracheids
(b) Companion cells
(c) Sieve tubes
(d) Vessels
5.Meristematic tissues in plants are
(a) localised and permanent
(b) not limited Lo certain regions
(c) localised and dividing cells
(d) growing in volume
6.Nervous tissue is not found in
(a) brain
(b) spinal cord
(c) tendons
(d) nerves
7.Nerve cell does not contain
(a) axon
(b) nerve endings
(c) tendons
(d) dendrites
8.The dead element present in the phloem is
(a) companion cells
(b) phloem fibres
(c) phloem parenchyma
(d) sieve tubes
9.In desert plants, rate of water loss gets reduced due to the presence of
(a) cuticle
(b) stomata
(c) lignin
(d) suberin
Question 10
A long tree has several branches. The tissue that helps in the side ways conduction of water in the branches is
(a) collenchyma
(b) xylem parenchyma
(c) parenchyma
(d) xylem vessels
11.f the tip of sugar cane plant is removed from the field, even then it keeps on growing in length. It is due to the presence of
(a) cambium
(b) apical meristem
(c) lateral meristem
(d) intercalary meristem
12 A nail is inserted in the trunk of a tree at a height of 1 metre from the ground level. After 3 years the nail will
(a) move downwards
(b) move upwards
(c) remain at the same position
(d) move sideways
Question 13
Parenchyma cells are
(a) relatively unspecified and thin-walled
(b) thick walled and specialised
(c) lignified
(d) none of these
14.Flexibility in plants is due to
(a) collenchyma
(b) scierenchyma
(c) parenchyma
(d) chiorenchyma
15.Cork cells are made impervious to water and gases by the presence of
(a) cellulose
(b) lipids
(c) suberin
(d) lignin
16.Survival of plants in terrestrial environment has been made possible by the presence of
(a) intercalary meristem
(b) conducting tissue
(c) apical meristem
(d) parenchymatous tissue
17.The water conducting tissue generally present in gymnosperm is
(a) vessels
(b) sieve tube
(c) tracheids
(d) xylem fibres
18.. Apical meristem is present at the growing tips of stems and roots and increases the ……………. of the stem and the root.
19. The ………….. meristem helps to increase the girth of the stem or root.
20.The process by which cells take up a permanent shape, size, and a function is called ……………..
21.. Large air cavities present in parenchyma of aquatic plants give ……………. to the plants to help them float.
22.. Collenchyma is a …………… tissue present in plants which provides flexibility in plants.
23. The husk of a coconut is composed of …………… tissue.
24.. Two kidney-shaped cells called ……………… cells enclose the stomata.
25.. Cells of cork are dead and have a chemical called ……………. in their walls that makes them impervious to gases and water.
26. The ……………. parenchyma stores food and helps in the sideways conduction of water.
27. An extracellular fibrous ……………. membrane separates all epithelium from the underlying tissue.
28.Can we write 0 in the form of p/q?
a. Yes
b. No
c. Cannot be explained
d. None of the above
29.) The three rational numbers between 3 and 4 are:
a. 5/2, 6/2, 7/2
b. 13/4, 14/4, 15/4
c. 12/7, 13/7, 14/7
d.11/4, 12/4, 13/4
30.) In between any two numbers, there are:
a. Only one rational number
b. Two rational numbers
c. Infinite rational numbers
d. No rational number
31.) Every rational number is:
a. Whole number
b. Natural number
c. Integer
d. Real number
32.) √9 is __________ number.
a. A rational
b. An irrational
c. Neither rational nor irrational
d. None of the above
33.) Which of the following is an irrational number?
a. √16
b. √(12/3)
c. √12
d. √100
34.) 3√6 + 4√6 is equal to:
a. 6√6
b. 7√6
c. 4√12
d. 7√12
35) √6 x √27 is equal to:
a. 9√2
b. 3√3
c. 2√2
d. 9√3
36) Which of the following is equal to x3?
Here all are powers pls
a. x6 – x3
b. x6.x3
c. x6/x3
d. (x6)3
37) Which of the following is an irrational number?
a. √23
b. √225
c. 0.3796
d. 7.478478
38.) Which of the following is an irrational number?
a. 0.14
b. 0.1416¯¯¯¯¯
c. 0.1416¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯
d. 0.4014001400014…
39) 2√3+√3 =
a. 6
b. 2√6
c. 3√3
d. 4√6
40) Find the value of 2√−12√+1−−−−√, if √2 = 1.4142.
a. 5.8282
b. 0.1718
c. 0.4142
d. 2.4142
41. From the choices given below mark the co-prime numbers
(a) 2, 3
(b) 2, 4
(c) 2, 6
(d) 2, 110
42. A rational number equivalent to 5/7
is
(a) 15/17
(b) 25/27
(c) 10/14
(d) 10/27
43. An example of a whole number is
(a) 0
(b) - 1 / 2
(c) 11/5
(d) –7
44. Given a rational number - 5 /9
This rational number can also be known as
(a) a natural number
(b) a whole number
(c) a fraction
(d) a real number
45. The rational number 0.3 bar on 3 only
can also be written as
(a) 0.3
(b) 3/10
(c) 0.33
(d) 1/3
46. If the decimal representation of a number is non-terminating, non-repeating then the number is
(a) a natural number
(b) a rational number
(c) a whole number
(d) an irrational number
47. The square root of which number is rational
(a) 7
(b) 1.96
(c) 0.04
(d) 13
48. A rational number between 1/7 and 2/7 is
is
(a) 1/14
(b) 2/21
(c) 5/14
(d) 5/21
49. The number 1.101001000100001... is
(a) a natural number
(b) a whole number
(c) a rational number
(d) an irrational number
50. On adding 2 root3 and 3 root 2
we get
(a) 5 root 5
(b) 5(root3+root2)
(c) 2root3+3root2
(d) none of these
1.Which of the following tissues has dead cells?
(a) Parenchyma
(b) Sclerenchyma
(c) Collenchyma
(d) Epithelial tissue
2.Find out incorrect sentence.
(a) Parenchymatous tissues have intercellular spaces.
(b) Collenchymatous tissues are irregularly thickened at corners.
(c) Apical and intercalary meristems are permanent tissues.
(d) Meristematic tissues, in its early stage, lack vacuoles.
3.Girth of stem increases due to
(a) apical meristem
(b) lateral meristem
(c) intercalary meristem
(d) vertical meristem
4.Which cell does not have perforated cell wall?
(a) Tracheids
(b) Companion cells
(c) Sieve tubes
(d) Vessels
5.Meristematic tissues in plants are
(a) localised and permanent
(b) not limited Lo certain regions
(c) localised and dividing cells
(d) growing in volume
6.Nervous tissue is not found in
(a) brain
(b) spinal cord
(c) tendons
(d) nerves
7.Nerve cell does not contain
(a) axon
(b) nerve endings
(c) tendons
(d) dendrites
8.The dead element present in the phloem is
(a) companion cells
(b) phloem fibres
(c) phloem parenchyma
(d) sieve tubes
9.In desert plants, rate of water loss gets reduced due to the presence of
(a) cuticle
(b) stomata
(c) lignin
(d) suberin
Question 10
A long tree has several branches. The tissue that helps in the side ways conduction of water in the branches is
(a) collenchyma
(b) xylem parenchyma
(c) parenchyma
(d) xylem vessels
11.f the tip of sugar cane plant is removed from the field, even then it keeps on growing in length. It is due to the presence of
(a) cambium
(b) apical meristem
(c) lateral meristem
(d) intercalary meristem
12 A nail is inserted in the trunk of a tree at a height of 1 metre from the ground level. After 3 years the nail will
(a) move downwards
(b) move upwards
(c) remain at the same position
(d) move sideways
Question 13
Parenchyma cells are
(a) relatively unspecified and thin-walled
(b) thick walled and specialised
(c) lignified
(d) none of these
14.Flexibility in plants is due to
(a) collenchyma
(b) scierenchyma
(c) parenchyma
(d) chiorenchyma
15.Cork cells are made impervious to water and gases by the presence of
(a) cellulose
(b) lipids
(c) suberin
(d) lignin
16.Survival of plants in terrestrial environment has been made possible by the presence of
(a) intercalary meristem
(b) conducting tissue
(c) apical meristem
(d) parenchymatous tissue
17.The water conducting tissue generally present in gymnosperm is
(a) vessels
(b) sieve tube
(c) tracheids
(d) xylem fibres
18.. Apical meristem is present at the growing tips of stems and roots and increases the ……………. of the stem and the root.
19. The ………….. meristem helps to increase the girth of the stem or root.
20.The process by which cells take up a permanent shape, size, and a function is called ……………..
21.. Large air cavities present in parenchyma of aquatic plants give ……………. to the plants to help them float.
22.. Collenchyma is a …………… tissue present in plants which provides flexibility in plants.
23. The husk of a coconut is composed of …………… tissue.
24.. Two kidney-shaped cells called ……………… cells enclose the stomata.
25.. Cells of cork are dead and have a chemical called ……………. in their walls that makes them impervious to gases and water.
26. The ……………. parenchyma stores food and helps in the sideways conduction of water.
27. An extracellular fibrous ……………. membrane separates all epithelium from the underlying tissue.
28.Can we write 0 in the form of p/q?
a. Yes
b. No
c. Cannot be explained
d. None of the above
29.) The three rational numbers between 3 and 4 are:
a. 5/2, 6/2, 7/2
b. 13/4, 14/4, 15/4
c. 12/7, 13/7, 14/7
d.11/4, 12/4, 13/4
30.) In between any two numbers, there are:
a. Only one rational number
b. Two rational numbers
c. Infinite rational numbers
d. No rational number
31.) Every rational number is:
a. Whole number
b. Natural number
c. Integer
d. Real number
32.) √9 is __________ number.
a. A rational
b. An irrational
c. Neither rational nor irrational
d. None of the above
33.) Which of the following is an irrational number?
a. √16
b. √(12/3)
c. √12
d. √100
34.) 3√6 + 4√6 is equal to:
a. 6√6
b. 7√6
c. 4√12
d. 7√12
35) √6 x √27 is equal to:
a. 9√2
b. 3√3
c. 2√2
d. 9√3
36) Which of the following is equal to x3?
Here all are powers pls
a. x6 – x3
b. x6.x3
c. x6/x3
d. (x6)3
37) Which of the following is an irrational number?
a. √23
b. √225
c. 0.3796
d. 7.478478
38.) Which of the following is an irrational number?
a. 0.14
b. 0.1416¯¯¯¯¯
c. 0.1416¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯
d. 0.4014001400014…
39) 2√3+√3 =
a. 6
b. 2√6
c. 3√3
d. 4√6
40) Find the value of 2√−12√+1−−−−√, if √2 = 1.4142.
a. 5.8282
b. 0.1718
c. 0.4142
d. 2.4142
41. From the choices given below mark the co-prime numbers
(a) 2, 3
(b) 2, 4
(c) 2, 6
(d) 2, 110
42. A rational number equivalent to 5/7
is
(a) 15/17
(b) 25/27
(c) 10/14
(d) 10/27
43. An example of a whole number is
(a) 0
(b) - 1 / 2
(c) 11/5
(d) –7
44. Given a rational number - 5 /9
This rational number can also be known as
(a) a natural number
(b) a whole number
(c) a fraction
(d) a real number
45. The rational number 0.3 bar on 3 only
can also be written as
(a) 0.3
(b) 3/10
(c) 0.33
(d) 1/3
46. If the decimal representation of a number is non-terminating, non-repeating then the number is
(a) a natural number
(b) a rational number
(c) a whole number
(d) an irrational number
47. The square root of which number is rational
(a) 7
(b) 1.96
(c) 0.04
(d) 13
48. A rational number between 1/7 and 2/7 is
is
(a) 1/14
(b) 2/21
(c) 5/14
(d) 5/21
49. The number 1.101001000100001... is
(a) a natural number
(b) a whole number
(c) a rational number
(d) an irrational number
50. On adding 2 root3 and 3 root 2
we get
(a) 5 root 5
(b) 5(root3+root2)
(c) 2root3+3root2
(d) none of these
Test no 21 8th cbse
1Amina thinks of a number and subtracts 5/2 from it. She multiplies the result by 8. The final result is 3 times her original number. Find the number
2.A number is 12 more than the other. Find the numbers if their sum is 48.
3.Jane is 6 years older than her younger sister. After 10 years, the sum of their ages will be 50 years. Find their present ages.
4.The denominator of a fraction is greater than the numerator by 8. If the numerator is increased by 17 and denominator is decreased by 1, the number obtained is 3/2, find the fraction.
5.sum of Rs 2700 is to be given in the form of 63 prizes. If the prize is of either Rs 100 or Rs 25, find the number of prizes of each type.
In an isosceles triangle, the base angles are equal and the vertex angle is 80°. Find the measure of the base angles.
6.Fifteen years from now Ravi's age will be 4 times his current age. What is his current age?
a. 4 year
b. 5 years
c. 6 years
d. 3 years
7.Ramesh is a cashier in a Canara bank. he has notes of denominations of Rs. 100, 50 and 10 respectively. The ratio of number of these notes is 2:3:5 respectively. The total cash with Ramesh is 4,00,000. How many notes of each denomination does he have?
8.The perimeter of a rectangular swimming pool is 154 m. Its length is 2 m more than twice its breadth. What are the length and the breadth of the pool?
9.Sum of two numbers is 95. If one exceeds the other by 15, find the numbers.
10.Two numbers are in the ratio 5:3. If they differ by 18, what are the numbers?
11.Three consecutive integers add up to 51. What are these integers?
12.The sum of three consecutive multiples of 8 is 888. Find the multiples.
13.Three consecutive integers are such that when they are taken in increasing order and multiplied by 2, 3 and 4 respectively, they add up to 74. Find these numbers.
14.The ages of Rahul and Haroon are in the ratio 5:7. Four years later the sum of their ages will be 56 years. What are their present ages?
15.The number of boys and girls in a class are in the ratio 7:5. The number of boys is 8 more than the number of girls. What is the total class strength?
16 Baichung’s father is 26 years younger than Baichung’s grandfather and 29 years older than Baichung. The sum of the ages of all the three is 135 years. What is the age of each one of them?
Fifteen years from now Ravi’s age will be four times his present age. What is Ravi’s present age?
17.Lakshmi is a cashier in a bank. She has currency notes of denominations Rs 100, Rs 50 and Rs 10, respectively. The ratio of the number of these notes is 2:3:5. The total cash with Lakshmi is Rs 4, 00,000. How many notes of each denomination does she have?
18The breadth of a rectangular garden is 23 of its length. If its perimeter is 40 m, find its dimensions.
19.The sum of two numbers is 11 and their difference is 5. Find the numbers.
20.The angles of a triangle are in the ratio 2 : 3 : 4. Find the angles of the triangle.
2.A number is 12 more than the other. Find the numbers if their sum is 48.
3.Jane is 6 years older than her younger sister. After 10 years, the sum of their ages will be 50 years. Find their present ages.
4.The denominator of a fraction is greater than the numerator by 8. If the numerator is increased by 17 and denominator is decreased by 1, the number obtained is 3/2, find the fraction.
5.sum of Rs 2700 is to be given in the form of 63 prizes. If the prize is of either Rs 100 or Rs 25, find the number of prizes of each type.
In an isosceles triangle, the base angles are equal and the vertex angle is 80°. Find the measure of the base angles.
6.Fifteen years from now Ravi's age will be 4 times his current age. What is his current age?
a. 4 year
b. 5 years
c. 6 years
d. 3 years
7.Ramesh is a cashier in a Canara bank. he has notes of denominations of Rs. 100, 50 and 10 respectively. The ratio of number of these notes is 2:3:5 respectively. The total cash with Ramesh is 4,00,000. How many notes of each denomination does he have?
8.The perimeter of a rectangular swimming pool is 154 m. Its length is 2 m more than twice its breadth. What are the length and the breadth of the pool?
9.Sum of two numbers is 95. If one exceeds the other by 15, find the numbers.
10.Two numbers are in the ratio 5:3. If they differ by 18, what are the numbers?
11.Three consecutive integers add up to 51. What are these integers?
12.The sum of three consecutive multiples of 8 is 888. Find the multiples.
13.Three consecutive integers are such that when they are taken in increasing order and multiplied by 2, 3 and 4 respectively, they add up to 74. Find these numbers.
14.The ages of Rahul and Haroon are in the ratio 5:7. Four years later the sum of their ages will be 56 years. What are their present ages?
15.The number of boys and girls in a class are in the ratio 7:5. The number of boys is 8 more than the number of girls. What is the total class strength?
16 Baichung’s father is 26 years younger than Baichung’s grandfather and 29 years older than Baichung. The sum of the ages of all the three is 135 years. What is the age of each one of them?
Fifteen years from now Ravi’s age will be four times his present age. What is Ravi’s present age?
17.Lakshmi is a cashier in a bank. She has currency notes of denominations Rs 100, Rs 50 and Rs 10, respectively. The ratio of the number of these notes is 2:3:5. The total cash with Lakshmi is Rs 4, 00,000. How many notes of each denomination does she have?
18The breadth of a rectangular garden is 23 of its length. If its perimeter is 40 m, find its dimensions.
19.The sum of two numbers is 11 and their difference is 5. Find the numbers.
20.The angles of a triangle are in the ratio 2 : 3 : 4. Find the angles of the triangle.
Test no 21 9th cbse
9th cbse 2021 test no 21
. The S.I. unit of force is
I. Kgm/s
II. Kgm/s2
III. Newton
IV. Newton-meter
2. What do we get by the product of mass and velocity?
I. Force
II. Inertia
III. Momentum
IV. Newton
3. The rate of change of momentum of an object is proportional to
I. Mass of the body
II. Velocity of the body
III. Net force applied on the body
IV. None of these
4. If two balls of same masses are dropped on sand, the depths of penetration is same if
I. Heavier ball is dropped faster than lighter ball
II. Lighter ball is dropped faster than heavier ball
III. The product ‘mv’ is same for both bodies
IV. None of these
5. A coin placed on a card(rested at the edges of the glass) remains at rest because of
I. Inertia of rest
II. Two forces act on the coin which balance each other
III. No unbalanced force acts on it
IV. All of these
6. A force of 50N moves a body,
I. Friction force exerted on the body is less than 50N
II. Friction force exerted on the body is more than 50N
III. None of these
IV. Both of I and II
7. A fielder giving a swing while catching a ball is an example of
I. Inertia
II. Momentum
III. Newton’s II law of motion
IV. Newton’s I law of motion
8. Action and reaction forces
I. Act on the same body
II. Act on different bodies
III. Act in same direction
IV. Both I and III
9. When we pedaling the bicycle it stops because
I. The earth’s gravitational force acts on it
II. It is not accelerated
III. No unbalanced force acts on it
IV. Frictional force acts on it
10. A football and a stone has same mass
I. Both have same inertia
II. Both have same momentum
III. Both have different inertia
IV. Both have different momentum
11
Which of the following statements is not correct for an object moving along a straight path in an accelerated motion?
(a) Its speed keeps changing
(b) Its velocity always changes
(c) It always goes away from the Earth
(d) A force is always acting on it
Answer
Question 12.
According to the third law of motion, action and reaction
(a) always act on the same body
(b) always act on different bodies in opposite directions
(c) have same magnitude and directions
(d) act on either body at normal to each other
Answer
Question 13.
A goalkeeper in a game of football pulls his hands backwards after holding the ball shot at the goal. This enables the goalkeeper to
(a) exert larger force on the ball
(b) reduce the force exerted by the balls on the hands
(c) increase the rate of change of momentum
(d) decrease the rate of change of momentum
Answer
Question 14.
The inertia of an object tends to cause the object
(a) to increase its speed
(b) to decrease its speed
(c) to resist any change in its state of motion
(d) to decelerate due to friction
Answer
Question 15.
A passenger in a moving train tosses a coin which falls behind him. It means that motion of the train is
(a) accelerated
(b) uniform
(c) retarded
(d) along circular tracks
Answer
Question 16.
An object of mass 2 kg is sliding with a constant velocity of 4 ms-1 on a frictionless horizontal table. The force required to keep the object moving with the same velocity is
(a) 32 N
(b) 0 N
(c) 2 N
(d) 8 N
Answer
Question 17.
Rocket works on the principle of conservation of
(a) mass
(b) energy
(c) momentum
(d) velocity
Answer
Question 18.
A water tanker filled up to 23 of its height is moving with a uniform speed. On a sudden application of brakes, the water in the tank would
(a) move backward
(b) move forward
(c) be unaffected
(d) rise upwards
Answer
Question 19.
If the mass of a body is doubled and its velocity becomes half, then the linear momentum of the body will
(a) remain same
(b) become double
(c) become half
(d) become four times.
Answer
Question 20.
When a number of forces acting simultaneously on a body bring about a change in its state of rest or of uniform motion in a straight line, then these forces acting on the body are said to be
(a) balanced forces
(b) equal forces
(c) unbalanced forces
(d) opposite forces
Answer
Question 21.
When a car at high speed makes a sharp turn, the driver in a car tends to get thrown to the side opposite to the turn. This is due to the
(a) inertia of motion
(b) inertia of time
(c) inertia of rest
(d) inertia of direction
Answer
Question 22.
A man is standing on a boat in still water. If he walks towards the shore, then the boat will
(a) move away from the shore
(b) move towards the shore
(c) remain stationary
(d) none of these
Answer
Question 23.
Which of the following is an incorrect statement?
(a) Mass is measure of inertia of a body.
(b) Newton’s first law of motion is the law of inertia.
(c) Unbalanced force produces constant velocity.
(d) Newton’s third law talks about the direction of the force.
Answer
Question 24.
A ball is thrown vertically upward in a train moving with uniform velocity. The ball will
(a) fall behind the thrower
(b) fall ahead of the thrower
(c) return back to the thrower
(d) fall on the left of the thrower
Answer
Question 25.
Which of the following is not an application of conservation of linear momentum?
(a) While firing a bullet, the gun must be held tight to the shoulder
(b) When a man jumps from a boat to the shore
(c) A rocket explodes on midway from the ground
(d) A body suspended from the hook of a spring balanced in a lift which is accelerated downward
Question 26.
When we stop pedalling, the bicycle begins to slow down. This is because of the
(a) Frictional force acting along the direction of motion of bicycle
(b) Air resistance which is in the direction of motion
(c) Frictional force acting opposite to the direction of motion of bicycle by the road
(d) Nature of the bicycle to stop after some time
Question 27.
Inertia is the property of a body by virtue of which, it cannot change by itself
(a) its state of rest
(b) its steady state of uniform motion
(c) its direction of motion
(d) all of these.
Question 28.
An athlete does not come to rest immediately after crossing the winning line due to the
(a) inertia of motion
(b) inertia of rest
(c) inertia of direction
(d) none of these
Question 29.
A bullet of mass A and velocity B is fired into a wooden block of mass C. If the bullet gets embedded in the wooden block, then the magnitude of velocity of the system just after the collision will be
(a) A+BAC
(b) A+CB+C
(c) ACB+C
(d) ABA+C
Question 30.
The masses of two bodies are in ratio 5 : 6 and their velocities are in ratio 1 : 2. Then their linear momentum will be in the ratio
(a) 5 : 6
(b) 1 : 2
(c) 12 : 5
(d) 5 : 12
Fill in the blanks
31. The momentum of an object is product of its mass and ……………..
32. According to second law of motion “the rate of change of momentum is directly proportional to ……………… applied”.
33 According to law of conservation of momentum “the total momentum of an isolated system is always ……………..
34. Recoiling of gun is an example of ………….. law of motion.
35. According to third law of motion “to every action there is an equal and ……………… reaction and they act on two different bodies”.
36. The forces are said to be balanced, if net force is ……………..
37. When a carpet is beaten with a stick, dust particle comes out. This phenomenon is an example of …………….. law of motion.
7 marks
. The S.I. unit of force is
I. Kgm/s
II. Kgm/s2
III. Newton
IV. Newton-meter
2. What do we get by the product of mass and velocity?
I. Force
II. Inertia
III. Momentum
IV. Newton
3. The rate of change of momentum of an object is proportional to
I. Mass of the body
II. Velocity of the body
III. Net force applied on the body
IV. None of these
4. If two balls of same masses are dropped on sand, the depths of penetration is same if
I. Heavier ball is dropped faster than lighter ball
II. Lighter ball is dropped faster than heavier ball
III. The product ‘mv’ is same for both bodies
IV. None of these
5. A coin placed on a card(rested at the edges of the glass) remains at rest because of
I. Inertia of rest
II. Two forces act on the coin which balance each other
III. No unbalanced force acts on it
IV. All of these
6. A force of 50N moves a body,
I. Friction force exerted on the body is less than 50N
II. Friction force exerted on the body is more than 50N
III. None of these
IV. Both of I and II
7. A fielder giving a swing while catching a ball is an example of
I. Inertia
II. Momentum
III. Newton’s II law of motion
IV. Newton’s I law of motion
8. Action and reaction forces
I. Act on the same body
II. Act on different bodies
III. Act in same direction
IV. Both I and III
9. When we pedaling the bicycle it stops because
I. The earth’s gravitational force acts on it
II. It is not accelerated
III. No unbalanced force acts on it
IV. Frictional force acts on it
10. A football and a stone has same mass
I. Both have same inertia
II. Both have same momentum
III. Both have different inertia
IV. Both have different momentum
11
Which of the following statements is not correct for an object moving along a straight path in an accelerated motion?
(a) Its speed keeps changing
(b) Its velocity always changes
(c) It always goes away from the Earth
(d) A force is always acting on it
Answer
Question 12.
According to the third law of motion, action and reaction
(a) always act on the same body
(b) always act on different bodies in opposite directions
(c) have same magnitude and directions
(d) act on either body at normal to each other
Answer
Question 13.
A goalkeeper in a game of football pulls his hands backwards after holding the ball shot at the goal. This enables the goalkeeper to
(a) exert larger force on the ball
(b) reduce the force exerted by the balls on the hands
(c) increase the rate of change of momentum
(d) decrease the rate of change of momentum
Answer
Question 14.
The inertia of an object tends to cause the object
(a) to increase its speed
(b) to decrease its speed
(c) to resist any change in its state of motion
(d) to decelerate due to friction
Answer
Question 15.
A passenger in a moving train tosses a coin which falls behind him. It means that motion of the train is
(a) accelerated
(b) uniform
(c) retarded
(d) along circular tracks
Answer
Question 16.
An object of mass 2 kg is sliding with a constant velocity of 4 ms-1 on a frictionless horizontal table. The force required to keep the object moving with the same velocity is
(a) 32 N
(b) 0 N
(c) 2 N
(d) 8 N
Answer
Question 17.
Rocket works on the principle of conservation of
(a) mass
(b) energy
(c) momentum
(d) velocity
Answer
Question 18.
A water tanker filled up to 23 of its height is moving with a uniform speed. On a sudden application of brakes, the water in the tank would
(a) move backward
(b) move forward
(c) be unaffected
(d) rise upwards
Answer
Question 19.
If the mass of a body is doubled and its velocity becomes half, then the linear momentum of the body will
(a) remain same
(b) become double
(c) become half
(d) become four times.
Answer
Question 20.
When a number of forces acting simultaneously on a body bring about a change in its state of rest or of uniform motion in a straight line, then these forces acting on the body are said to be
(a) balanced forces
(b) equal forces
(c) unbalanced forces
(d) opposite forces
Answer
Question 21.
When a car at high speed makes a sharp turn, the driver in a car tends to get thrown to the side opposite to the turn. This is due to the
(a) inertia of motion
(b) inertia of time
(c) inertia of rest
(d) inertia of direction
Answer
Question 22.
A man is standing on a boat in still water. If he walks towards the shore, then the boat will
(a) move away from the shore
(b) move towards the shore
(c) remain stationary
(d) none of these
Answer
Question 23.
Which of the following is an incorrect statement?
(a) Mass is measure of inertia of a body.
(b) Newton’s first law of motion is the law of inertia.
(c) Unbalanced force produces constant velocity.
(d) Newton’s third law talks about the direction of the force.
Answer
Question 24.
A ball is thrown vertically upward in a train moving with uniform velocity. The ball will
(a) fall behind the thrower
(b) fall ahead of the thrower
(c) return back to the thrower
(d) fall on the left of the thrower
Answer
Question 25.
Which of the following is not an application of conservation of linear momentum?
(a) While firing a bullet, the gun must be held tight to the shoulder
(b) When a man jumps from a boat to the shore
(c) A rocket explodes on midway from the ground
(d) A body suspended from the hook of a spring balanced in a lift which is accelerated downward
Question 26.
When we stop pedalling, the bicycle begins to slow down. This is because of the
(a) Frictional force acting along the direction of motion of bicycle
(b) Air resistance which is in the direction of motion
(c) Frictional force acting opposite to the direction of motion of bicycle by the road
(d) Nature of the bicycle to stop after some time
Question 27.
Inertia is the property of a body by virtue of which, it cannot change by itself
(a) its state of rest
(b) its steady state of uniform motion
(c) its direction of motion
(d) all of these.
Question 28.
An athlete does not come to rest immediately after crossing the winning line due to the
(a) inertia of motion
(b) inertia of rest
(c) inertia of direction
(d) none of these
Question 29.
A bullet of mass A and velocity B is fired into a wooden block of mass C. If the bullet gets embedded in the wooden block, then the magnitude of velocity of the system just after the collision will be
(a) A+BAC
(b) A+CB+C
(c) ACB+C
(d) ABA+C
Question 30.
The masses of two bodies are in ratio 5 : 6 and their velocities are in ratio 1 : 2. Then their linear momentum will be in the ratio
(a) 5 : 6
(b) 1 : 2
(c) 12 : 5
(d) 5 : 12
Fill in the blanks
31. The momentum of an object is product of its mass and ……………..
32. According to second law of motion “the rate of change of momentum is directly proportional to ……………… applied”.
33 According to law of conservation of momentum “the total momentum of an isolated system is always ……………..
34. Recoiling of gun is an example of ………….. law of motion.
35. According to third law of motion “to every action there is an equal and ……………… reaction and they act on two different bodies”.
36. The forces are said to be balanced, if net force is ……………..
37. When a carpet is beaten with a stick, dust particle comes out. This phenomenon is an example of …………….. law of motion.
7 marks
38.SI unit of force
39. Force which opposes relative motion
39. Force which opposes relative motion
40.Measure of inertia
41. First law is also known a
42. Product of mass and velocity
43.Natural tendency of an object to resist a change in its states of motion or rest
44 Magnitude of resultant if forces are balanced
Maths
45 to 50 maths
42. Product of mass and velocity
43.Natural tendency of an object to resist a change in its states of motion or rest
44 Magnitude of resultant if forces are balanced
Maths
45 to 50 maths
Test no 21 10th cbse 50 mcqs
1. Which of the given properties is generally not shown by metals?
A. Electrical conduction
B. Sonorous in nature
C. Dullness
D. Ductility
2. The ability of metals to be drawn into thin wire is known as
A. Ductility
B. Malleability
C. Sonorousity
D. Conductivity
3. Aluminium is used for making cooking utensils. Which of the following properties of aluminium are responsible for the same?
(a) Good thermal conductivity
(b) Good electrical conductivity
(c) Ductility
(d) High melting point
A. (A) & (B)
B. (A) & (C)
C. (B) & (C)
D. (A) & (D)
4. Which one of the given metals does not react with cold as well as hot water?
A. Na
B. Ca
C. Mg
D. Fe
5. Which of the given oxide(s) of iron would be obtained on prolonged reaction of iron with steam?
A. FeO
B. Fe₂O₃
C. Fe₃O₄
D. Fe₂O₃ and Fe₃O₄
6. What happens when calcium is treated with water?
(a) It does not react with water
(b) It reacts violently with water
(c) It reacts less violently with water
(d) Bubbles of hydrogen gas formed stick to the surface of calcium
A. (A) & (D)
B. (B) & (C)
C. (A) & (B)
D. (C) & (D)
7. Generally metals react with acids to give salt and hydrogen gas. Which of the given acids does not give hydrogen gas on reacting with metals (except Mn and Mg)?
A. H₂SO₄
B. HCl
C. HNO₃
D. All the these
8. The composition of aqua-regia is
A. Dil.HCl : Conc. HNO₃ = 3 : 1
B. Conc.HCl : Dil. HNO₃ = 3 : 1
C. Conc.HCl : Conc. HNO₃ = 3 : 1
D. Dil.HCl : Dil. HNO₃ = 3 : 1
9. Which of the following are not ionic compounds?
(a) KCl
(b) HCl
(c) CCl₄
(d) NaCl
A. (A) & (B)
B. (B) & (C)
C. (C) & (D)
D. (A) & (C)
10. Which one of the given properties is not generally exhibited by ionic compounds?
A. Solubility in water
B. Electrical conductivity in solid state
C. High melting and boiling points
D. Electrical conductivity in molten state
11. Which of the following metals exists in its native state in nature?
(a) Cu
(b) Au
(c) Zn
(d) Ag
A. (A) & (B)
B. (B) & (C)
C. (B) & (D)
D. (C) & (D)
12. Metals are refined by using different methods. Which of the following metals are refined by electrolytic refining?
(a) Au
(b) Cu
(c) Na
(d) K
A. (A) & (B)
B. (A) & (C)
C. (B) & (C)
D. (C) & (D)
13. Silver articles become black on prolonged exposure to air. This is due to the formation of
A. Ag₃N
B. Ag₂O
C. Ag₂S
D. Ag₂S and Ag₃N
14. Galvanisation is a method of protecting iron from rusting by coating with a thin layer of
A. Gallium
B. Aluminium
C. Zinc
D. Silver
15. Stainless steel is very useful material for our life. In stainless steel, iron is mixed with
A. Ni and Cr
B. Cu and Cr
C. Ni and Cu
D. Cu and Au
16. If copper is kept open in air, it slowly loses its shining brown surface and gains a green coating. It is due to the formation of
A. CuSO₄
B. CuCO₃
C. Cu(NO₃)₂
D. CuO
17. Generally, metals are solid in nature. Which one of the given metals is found in liquid state at room temperature?
A. Na
B. Fe
C. Cr
D. Hg
18. Which of the given metals are obtained by electrolysis of their chlorides in molten state ?
(a) Na
(b) Ca
(c) Fe
(d) Cu
A. (A) & (D)
B. (C) & (D)
C. (A) & (C)
D. (A) & (B)
19. Generally, non-metals are not lustrous. Which of the given nonmetals is lustrous?
A. Sulphur
B. Oxygen
C. Nitrogen
D. Iodine
20. Which one of the given four metals would be displaced from the solution of its salts by other three metals?
A. Mg
B. Ag
C. Zn
D. Cu
21. 2 ml each of concentrated HCl, HNO₃ and a mixture of concentrated HCl and concentrated HNO₃ in the ratio of 3 : 1 were taken in test tubes labelled as A, B and C. A small piece of metal was put in each test tube. No change occurred in test tubes A and B but the metal got dissolved in test tube C respectively. The metal could be
A. Al
B. Au
C. Cu
D. Pt
22. An alloy is
A. An element
B. A compound
C. A homogeneous mixture
D. A heterogeneous mixture
23. An electrolytic cell consists of
(a) Positively charged cathode
(b) Negatively charged anode
(c) Positively charged anode
(d) Negatively charged cathode
A. (A) & (B)
B. (C) & (D)
C. (A) & (C)
D. (B) & (D)
24. During electrolytic refining of zinc, it gets
A. Deposited on cathode
B. Deposited on anode
C. Deposited on cathode as well as anode
D. Remains in the solution
25. An element A is soft and can be cut with a knife. This is very reactive to air and cannot be kept open in air. It reacts vigorously with water. Identify the element
A. Mg
B. Na
C. P
D. Ca
26. Alloys are homogeneous mixtures of a metal with a metal or nonmetal. Which among the given alloys contain non-metal as one of its constituents?
A. Brass
B. Bronze
C. Amalgam
D. Steel
27. Which among the given statements is incorrect for magnesium metal?
A. It burns in oxygen with a dazzling white flame
B. It reacts with cold water to form magnesium oxide and evolves hydrogen gas
C. It reacts with hot water to form magnesium hydroxide and evolves hydrogen gas
D. It reacts with steam to form magnesium hydroxide and evolves hydrogen gas
28. Which among the given alloys contains mercury as one of its constituents?
A. Stainless steel
B. Alnico
C. Solder
D. Zinc amalgam
29. Reaction between X and Y, forms compound Z. X loses electron and Y gains electron. Which of the given properties is not shown by Z?
A. Has high melting point
B. Has low melting point
C. Conducts electricity in molten state
D. Occurs as solid
30. The electronic configurations of three elements X, Y and Z are X – 2, 8; Y – 2, 8, 7 and Z – 2, 8, 2. Which of the given is correct?
A. X is a metal
B. Y is a metal
C. Z is a non-metal
D. Y is a non-metal & Z is a metal
31. Although metals form basic oxides, which of the given metals form an amphoteric oxide?
A. Na
B. Ca
C. Al
D. Cu
32. Generally, non-metals are not conductors of electricity. Which of the given is a good conductor of electricity?
A. Diamond
B. Graphite
C. Sulphur
D. Fullerene
33. Electrical wires have a coating of an insulating material. The material generally used is
A. Sulphur
B. Graphite
C. PVC
D. All can be used
34. Which of the given non-metals is a liquid?
A. Carbon
B. Bromine
C. Phosphors
D. Sulphur
35. Which of the given can undergo a chemical reaction?
A. MgSO₄ + Fe
B. ZnSO₄ + Fe
C. MgSO₄ + Pb
D. CuSO₄ + Fe
36. Which of the given metals is present in the anode mud during the electrolytic refining of copper?
A. Sodium
B. Aluminium
C. Gold
D. Iron
37. An element reacts with oxygen to give a compound with a high melting point. The compound is soluble in water. The element is likely to be
A. Calcium
B. Carbon
C. Iron
D. Silicon
38. The second most abundant metal in the earth’s crust is
A. Oxygen
B. Silicon
C. Aluminium
D. Iron
39. An alloy of Zn and Cu is dissolved in dil. HCl. Hydrogen gas is evolved. In this evolution of gas
A. Only zinc reacts with dil. HCl
B. Only copper reacts with dil. HCl
C. Both zinc and copper react with dil. HCl
D. Only copper reacts with water
40. A greenish coating develops on copper utensils due to formation of
A. CuCO₃
B. Cu(OH)₂
C. Cu(OH)₂.CuCO₃
D. CuO
41. Which of the following triangles have the same side lengths?
(a)Scalene
(b)Isosceles
(c)Equilateral
(d)None of these
42. Area of an equilateral triangle with side length a is equal to:
(a)√3/2a
(b)√3/2a2
(c)√3/4 a2
(d)√3/4 a
43.D and E are the midpoints of side AB and AC of a triangle ABC, respectively and BC=6cm. If DE || BC, then the length of DE is:
(a)2.5
(b)3
(c)5
(d)6
44. The diagonals of a rhombus are 16cm and 12cm, in length. The side of rhombus in length is:
(a)20cm
(b)8cm
(c)10cm
(d)9cm
45. Corresponding sides of two similar triangles are in the ratio of 2:3. If the area of small triangle is 48 sq.cm, then the area of large triangle is:
(a)230 sq.cm.
(b)106 sq.cm
(c)107 sq.cm.
(d)108 sq.cm
46. If perimeter of a triangle is 100cm and the length of two sides are 30cm and 40cm, the length of third side will be:
(a)30cm
(b)40cm
(c)50cm
(d)60cm
47. If triangles ABC and DEF are similar and AB=4cm, DE=6cm, EF=9cm and FD=12cm, the perimeter of triangle is:
(a)22cm
(b)20cm
(c)21cm
(d)18cm
48. The height of an equilateral triangle of side 5cm is:
(a)4.33
(b)3.9
(c)5
(d)4
49. If ABC and DEF are two triangles and AB/DE=BC/FD, then the two triangles are similar if
(a)∠A=∠F
(b)∠B=∠D
(c)∠A=∠D
(d)∠B=∠E
50. Sides of two similar triangles are in the ratio 4: 9. Areas of these triangles are in the ratio
(a)2: 3
(b)4: 9
(c)81: 16
(d)16: 81
A. Electrical conduction
B. Sonorous in nature
C. Dullness
D. Ductility
2. The ability of metals to be drawn into thin wire is known as
A. Ductility
B. Malleability
C. Sonorousity
D. Conductivity
3. Aluminium is used for making cooking utensils. Which of the following properties of aluminium are responsible for the same?
(a) Good thermal conductivity
(b) Good electrical conductivity
(c) Ductility
(d) High melting point
A. (A) & (B)
B. (A) & (C)
C. (B) & (C)
D. (A) & (D)
4. Which one of the given metals does not react with cold as well as hot water?
A. Na
B. Ca
C. Mg
D. Fe
5. Which of the given oxide(s) of iron would be obtained on prolonged reaction of iron with steam?
A. FeO
B. Fe₂O₃
C. Fe₃O₄
D. Fe₂O₃ and Fe₃O₄
6. What happens when calcium is treated with water?
(a) It does not react with water
(b) It reacts violently with water
(c) It reacts less violently with water
(d) Bubbles of hydrogen gas formed stick to the surface of calcium
A. (A) & (D)
B. (B) & (C)
C. (A) & (B)
D. (C) & (D)
7. Generally metals react with acids to give salt and hydrogen gas. Which of the given acids does not give hydrogen gas on reacting with metals (except Mn and Mg)?
A. H₂SO₄
B. HCl
C. HNO₃
D. All the these
8. The composition of aqua-regia is
A. Dil.HCl : Conc. HNO₃ = 3 : 1
B. Conc.HCl : Dil. HNO₃ = 3 : 1
C. Conc.HCl : Conc. HNO₃ = 3 : 1
D. Dil.HCl : Dil. HNO₃ = 3 : 1
9. Which of the following are not ionic compounds?
(a) KCl
(b) HCl
(c) CCl₄
(d) NaCl
A. (A) & (B)
B. (B) & (C)
C. (C) & (D)
D. (A) & (C)
10. Which one of the given properties is not generally exhibited by ionic compounds?
A. Solubility in water
B. Electrical conductivity in solid state
C. High melting and boiling points
D. Electrical conductivity in molten state
11. Which of the following metals exists in its native state in nature?
(a) Cu
(b) Au
(c) Zn
(d) Ag
A. (A) & (B)
B. (B) & (C)
C. (B) & (D)
D. (C) & (D)
12. Metals are refined by using different methods. Which of the following metals are refined by electrolytic refining?
(a) Au
(b) Cu
(c) Na
(d) K
A. (A) & (B)
B. (A) & (C)
C. (B) & (C)
D. (C) & (D)
13. Silver articles become black on prolonged exposure to air. This is due to the formation of
A. Ag₃N
B. Ag₂O
C. Ag₂S
D. Ag₂S and Ag₃N
14. Galvanisation is a method of protecting iron from rusting by coating with a thin layer of
A. Gallium
B. Aluminium
C. Zinc
D. Silver
15. Stainless steel is very useful material for our life. In stainless steel, iron is mixed with
A. Ni and Cr
B. Cu and Cr
C. Ni and Cu
D. Cu and Au
16. If copper is kept open in air, it slowly loses its shining brown surface and gains a green coating. It is due to the formation of
A. CuSO₄
B. CuCO₃
C. Cu(NO₃)₂
D. CuO
17. Generally, metals are solid in nature. Which one of the given metals is found in liquid state at room temperature?
A. Na
B. Fe
C. Cr
D. Hg
18. Which of the given metals are obtained by electrolysis of their chlorides in molten state ?
(a) Na
(b) Ca
(c) Fe
(d) Cu
A. (A) & (D)
B. (C) & (D)
C. (A) & (C)
D. (A) & (B)
19. Generally, non-metals are not lustrous. Which of the given nonmetals is lustrous?
A. Sulphur
B. Oxygen
C. Nitrogen
D. Iodine
20. Which one of the given four metals would be displaced from the solution of its salts by other three metals?
A. Mg
B. Ag
C. Zn
D. Cu
21. 2 ml each of concentrated HCl, HNO₃ and a mixture of concentrated HCl and concentrated HNO₃ in the ratio of 3 : 1 were taken in test tubes labelled as A, B and C. A small piece of metal was put in each test tube. No change occurred in test tubes A and B but the metal got dissolved in test tube C respectively. The metal could be
A. Al
B. Au
C. Cu
D. Pt
22. An alloy is
A. An element
B. A compound
C. A homogeneous mixture
D. A heterogeneous mixture
23. An electrolytic cell consists of
(a) Positively charged cathode
(b) Negatively charged anode
(c) Positively charged anode
(d) Negatively charged cathode
A. (A) & (B)
B. (C) & (D)
C. (A) & (C)
D. (B) & (D)
24. During electrolytic refining of zinc, it gets
A. Deposited on cathode
B. Deposited on anode
C. Deposited on cathode as well as anode
D. Remains in the solution
25. An element A is soft and can be cut with a knife. This is very reactive to air and cannot be kept open in air. It reacts vigorously with water. Identify the element
A. Mg
B. Na
C. P
D. Ca
26. Alloys are homogeneous mixtures of a metal with a metal or nonmetal. Which among the given alloys contain non-metal as one of its constituents?
A. Brass
B. Bronze
C. Amalgam
D. Steel
27. Which among the given statements is incorrect for magnesium metal?
A. It burns in oxygen with a dazzling white flame
B. It reacts with cold water to form magnesium oxide and evolves hydrogen gas
C. It reacts with hot water to form magnesium hydroxide and evolves hydrogen gas
D. It reacts with steam to form magnesium hydroxide and evolves hydrogen gas
28. Which among the given alloys contains mercury as one of its constituents?
A. Stainless steel
B. Alnico
C. Solder
D. Zinc amalgam
29. Reaction between X and Y, forms compound Z. X loses electron and Y gains electron. Which of the given properties is not shown by Z?
A. Has high melting point
B. Has low melting point
C. Conducts electricity in molten state
D. Occurs as solid
30. The electronic configurations of three elements X, Y and Z are X – 2, 8; Y – 2, 8, 7 and Z – 2, 8, 2. Which of the given is correct?
A. X is a metal
B. Y is a metal
C. Z is a non-metal
D. Y is a non-metal & Z is a metal
31. Although metals form basic oxides, which of the given metals form an amphoteric oxide?
A. Na
B. Ca
C. Al
D. Cu
32. Generally, non-metals are not conductors of electricity. Which of the given is a good conductor of electricity?
A. Diamond
B. Graphite
C. Sulphur
D. Fullerene
33. Electrical wires have a coating of an insulating material. The material generally used is
A. Sulphur
B. Graphite
C. PVC
D. All can be used
34. Which of the given non-metals is a liquid?
A. Carbon
B. Bromine
C. Phosphors
D. Sulphur
35. Which of the given can undergo a chemical reaction?
A. MgSO₄ + Fe
B. ZnSO₄ + Fe
C. MgSO₄ + Pb
D. CuSO₄ + Fe
36. Which of the given metals is present in the anode mud during the electrolytic refining of copper?
A. Sodium
B. Aluminium
C. Gold
D. Iron
37. An element reacts with oxygen to give a compound with a high melting point. The compound is soluble in water. The element is likely to be
A. Calcium
B. Carbon
C. Iron
D. Silicon
38. The second most abundant metal in the earth’s crust is
A. Oxygen
B. Silicon
C. Aluminium
D. Iron
39. An alloy of Zn and Cu is dissolved in dil. HCl. Hydrogen gas is evolved. In this evolution of gas
A. Only zinc reacts with dil. HCl
B. Only copper reacts with dil. HCl
C. Both zinc and copper react with dil. HCl
D. Only copper reacts with water
40. A greenish coating develops on copper utensils due to formation of
A. CuCO₃
B. Cu(OH)₂
C. Cu(OH)₂.CuCO₃
D. CuO
41. Which of the following triangles have the same side lengths?
(a)Scalene
(b)Isosceles
(c)Equilateral
(d)None of these
42. Area of an equilateral triangle with side length a is equal to:
(a)√3/2a
(b)√3/2a2
(c)√3/4 a2
(d)√3/4 a
43.D and E are the midpoints of side AB and AC of a triangle ABC, respectively and BC=6cm. If DE || BC, then the length of DE is:
(a)2.5
(b)3
(c)5
(d)6
44. The diagonals of a rhombus are 16cm and 12cm, in length. The side of rhombus in length is:
(a)20cm
(b)8cm
(c)10cm
(d)9cm
45. Corresponding sides of two similar triangles are in the ratio of 2:3. If the area of small triangle is 48 sq.cm, then the area of large triangle is:
(a)230 sq.cm.
(b)106 sq.cm
(c)107 sq.cm.
(d)108 sq.cm
46. If perimeter of a triangle is 100cm and the length of two sides are 30cm and 40cm, the length of third side will be:
(a)30cm
(b)40cm
(c)50cm
(d)60cm
47. If triangles ABC and DEF are similar and AB=4cm, DE=6cm, EF=9cm and FD=12cm, the perimeter of triangle is:
(a)22cm
(b)20cm
(c)21cm
(d)18cm
48. The height of an equilateral triangle of side 5cm is:
(a)4.33
(b)3.9
(c)5
(d)4
49. If ABC and DEF are two triangles and AB/DE=BC/FD, then the two triangles are similar if
(a)∠A=∠F
(b)∠B=∠D
(c)∠A=∠D
(d)∠B=∠E
50. Sides of two similar triangles are in the ratio 4: 9. Areas of these triangles are in the ratio
(a)2: 3
(b)4: 9
(c)81: 16
(d)16: 81
Test no 21 10th class ends here
Test no 20
10th cbse mcqs test
1.which 2 metals melt in our palm
A.ceasiym
B.gallium
C.both a and b
D none
2.which metal do not corrode
A.gold b.platinum c.alluminum d all
3.matls form .... and non metals form .....
A.cations and anions
B.acids and bases
C.both a and b
D .only b
4.which 2 metals are stored in kerosene
A.Na and mg
B.mg and mn
C .k and Na
D.ce and GA
5.whic metals do not react with water at all
A.lead. b.copper. c.gold d.all
6.which acid won't liberate hydrogen gas from any metals
A.HCl. bH2SO4 c.HNo3 d.H3Po4
7.what are only 2 metals which liberate hydrogen even fron nitric acid
A.mg and MN. B.ce and GA
C.si and ge. D.k and Na
8.why nitric and do not liberate hydrogen from any metals because it is
A. Strong reducing agent
B.stron oxidizing agent.
C.strong Bleaching agent
D.stron antioxidant
9.which bond is strong
A.ionic b covalent c hydrogen d.coordinate covalent bond
7
10.which 2 metals catch fire when exposed to air or moisture
A.na and k. B ce and GA. C si and get d.mg and mn
11.what product is formed when iron reacts with steam
A.fe2o3 b.fe3o4. C.feo. d.feso4
12.metals are generally
A.give electrons
B.electropositive
C.forms cations
D.all
13.nom metals whichbis lustrous
A.iodine b bismuth c diamond d.both a and c
14.non metal which is liquid
A.iodine b.bromine c.mercury d.graphite
15.nonmetals which is good conductor of electricity
A.diamond b.silver. c.graphite. d.lead
16.what type of bond is seen in oxygen molecule and sodium chloride molecule
A.civalent and covalent
B.ionoc and covalent
C.jknov and ionic
D.civalent and ionic
17.what is difference between o.,O2, and O ^-2
A.atom ion molecule
B molecule atom ion
C.atom molecule and I'll
D.ion molecule atom
18.how many electrons are present in notorgen atom and nitride ion
A.7. And 8
B.7 and 10
C.10 and 7
D.10 and 10
19 which among following is non polar solvent
A.water b.salt c.starch. d.base
20.which compound have low mp and high BP
A.ionic and covalent
B.civalent and ionic
C ionic and electro alert
D.civalent and Metallic
21.which non metal is stored in water
A.sulphur b.diamond c.carbon. d phosphorus
22.wht are methods to prevent corrosion
. A.galvanisatuon b.ankdising. c.alloying. d all
23.steel is an alloy of iron and
A.copper. b .silver. c.carbon. d.alluminium
24.aqua Regia composition is
A.1 part HNo3 and 3 parts Hcl
B.1 part HcL and 3 parts HNo3
C.1 part Hno3 and 3 parts H2So4
D.3 parts Hck and 1 part HNo3
25.what are ions present in allumiunium oxide
A.Al +3 O -2
B.Al +2. O-3
C.Al +3. O -1
D.AL +2. O-2
26.which.metal burns with golden yellow flame
A.magnwsium b.gild c sodium d.silver
27.what silver reacts with and gets corroded
A.H2S and form black silver sulphide
B.sulohur and forms black silver sulphide
.c.Co2 and fkrm green silver carbonate
D.grey and reacts with H2s
28.copper on corrosion becomes ..... and on burning becomes....and it's actual cilour is .....
A.green copper carbonate black copper oxide and shining reddish brown
B.blue copper sulphate green copper oxide and brown copper.c.bkack copper icmxide green copper carbonate and red copper.
D.gren copper carbonate black copper oxide blue copper.
29.what is an alloy of mercury is called.
A.galvanised b.22 carat c amalgam d.anodised
30.which metal forms oxide layer around it to prevent further corrosion
A.gold b.silver c platinum d.allumonium
A.ceasiym
B.gallium
C.both a and b
D none
2.which metal do not corrode
A.gold b.platinum c.alluminum d all
3.matls form .... and non metals form .....
A.cations and anions
B.acids and bases
C.both a and b
D .only b
4.which 2 metals are stored in kerosene
A.Na and mg
B.mg and mn
C .k and Na
D.ce and GA
5.whic metals do not react with water at all
A.lead. b.copper. c.gold d.all
6.which acid won't liberate hydrogen gas from any metals
A.HCl. bH2SO4 c.HNo3 d.H3Po4
7.what are only 2 metals which liberate hydrogen even fron nitric acid
A.mg and MN. B.ce and GA
C.si and ge. D.k and Na
8.why nitric and do not liberate hydrogen from any metals because it is
A. Strong reducing agent
B.stron oxidizing agent.
C.strong Bleaching agent
D.stron antioxidant
9.which bond is strong
A.ionic b covalent c hydrogen d.coordinate covalent bond
7
10.which 2 metals catch fire when exposed to air or moisture
A.na and k. B ce and GA. C si and get d.mg and mn
11.what product is formed when iron reacts with steam
A.fe2o3 b.fe3o4. C.feo. d.feso4
12.metals are generally
A.give electrons
B.electropositive
C.forms cations
D.all
13.nom metals whichbis lustrous
A.iodine b bismuth c diamond d.both a and c
14.non metal which is liquid
A.iodine b.bromine c.mercury d.graphite
15.nonmetals which is good conductor of electricity
A.diamond b.silver. c.graphite. d.lead
16.what type of bond is seen in oxygen molecule and sodium chloride molecule
A.civalent and covalent
B.ionoc and covalent
C.jknov and ionic
D.civalent and ionic
17.what is difference between o.,O2, and O ^-2
A.atom ion molecule
B molecule atom ion
C.atom molecule and I'll
D.ion molecule atom
18.how many electrons are present in notorgen atom and nitride ion
A.7. And 8
B.7 and 10
C.10 and 7
D.10 and 10
19 which among following is non polar solvent
A.water b.salt c.starch. d.base
20.which compound have low mp and high BP
A.ionic and covalent
B.civalent and ionic
C ionic and electro alert
D.civalent and Metallic
21.which non metal is stored in water
A.sulphur b.diamond c.carbon. d phosphorus
22.wht are methods to prevent corrosion
. A.galvanisatuon b.ankdising. c.alloying. d all
23.steel is an alloy of iron and
A.copper. b .silver. c.carbon. d.alluminium
24.aqua Regia composition is
A.1 part HNo3 and 3 parts Hcl
B.1 part HcL and 3 parts HNo3
C.1 part Hno3 and 3 parts H2So4
D.3 parts Hck and 1 part HNo3
25.what are ions present in allumiunium oxide
A.Al +3 O -2
B.Al +2. O-3
C.Al +3. O -1
D.AL +2. O-2
26.which.metal burns with golden yellow flame
A.magnwsium b.gild c sodium d.silver
27.what silver reacts with and gets corroded
A.H2S and form black silver sulphide
B.sulohur and forms black silver sulphide
.c.Co2 and fkrm green silver carbonate
D.grey and reacts with H2s
28.copper on corrosion becomes ..... and on burning becomes....and it's actual cilour is .....
A.green copper carbonate black copper oxide and shining reddish brown
B.blue copper sulphate green copper oxide and brown copper.c.bkack copper icmxide green copper carbonate and red copper.
D.gren copper carbonate black copper oxide blue copper.
29.what is an alloy of mercury is called.
A.galvanised b.22 carat c amalgam d.anodised
30.which metal forms oxide layer around it to prevent further corrosion
A.gold b.silver c platinum d.allumonium
31.In triangle ABC ,DE || BC AD=3 cm, DB = 8 cm AC = 22 cm. At what distance from A does the line DE cut AC?
• A.6
• B.4
• C.10
• D.5
32.In a triangle ABC, BC || DE If AD = 1.5, DB = 4.5, AE = 1.3, EC = ?
• A.2.6
• B.3.9
• C.3.6
• D.3
33.In triangle DEF, GH is a line parallel to EF cutting DE in G and and DF in H. If DE = 16.5, DH = 5, HF = 6 GE = ?
• A.9
• B.10
• C.7.5
• D.8
34.In triangle ABC, DE || BC, AD = 1.2 cm DB = 3.6 cm, AE = 1.6 cm.What must be the value of EC?
• A.4.8 cm
• B.3.2 cm
• C.6.4 cm
• D.6.0 cm
35.In triangle ABC, DE || BC, AD = 1.2 cm DB = 3.6 cm, AE = 1.6 cm.What must be the value of EC?
• A.4.8 cm
• B.3.2 cm
• C.6.4 cm
• D.6.0 cm
36. D and E are respectively the midpoints on the sides AB and AC of a triangle ABC and BC = 6 cm. If DE || BC, then the length of DE (in cm) is
(A) 2.5
(B) 3
(C) 5
D..3.5 cms
37.11. In the figure given below DE || BC. If AD = x, DB = x – 2, AE = x + 2 and EC = x – 1, the value of x is:
(A)4 (B) 8
(C)16 D) 32
38.In ΔABC, D and E are points on the sides AB and AC respectively such that DE ∥ BC (i) If AD/DB = 3/4 and AC = 15 cm find AE.
A.43/7 b.44/7. C.45/7. D.47/7
39.If AD = 8x −7 , DB = 5x −3 , AE = 4x −3 and EC = 3x −1 find the value of x.
A.1. B.2. C.3. D.4
40..In a given ∆XYZ, the line PQ meeting the sides XY and XZ at P and Q respectively is parallel to YZ. If XP = 6 cm, XQ = 7.5 cm, PY = 2 cm, then find QZ.
A.2.5 b.2.6 c2.7 d.2.8
41. In the figure given below DE ||BC. If AD = x cm, DB = x-2 cm, AE = x +2, and EC = x-1 cm, then find the value of x.
A. 3. B.4 c.5 d.6
42.What line do you need to use the triangle proportionality theorem?
A line parallel to one of the sides of a triangle
B skew line
C perpendicular line
D random line
E.You don't need a line
43.In ∆DEW, AB || EW. If AD = 4 cm, DE = 12 cm and DW = 24 cm, then find the value of DB.
A.8. B.4. C.6. D.2
44.In the given figure, if DE || BC, AE = 8 cm, EC = 2 cm and BC = 6 cm, then find DE.
A.8.2. B.4.8. C.8.4. D.2.4
45. The length of altitude of an equilateral triangle of side 8cm is
(A) √3 cm
(B) 2√3 cm
(C) 3√3 cm
(D) 4√3 cm
46.In a square of side 10 cm, its diagonal = …
(a) 15 cm
(b) 10√2 cm
(c) 20 cm
(d) 12 cm
47.In a rectangle Length = 8 cm, Breadth = 6 cm. Then its diagonal = …
(a) 9 cm
(b) 14 cm
(c) 10 cm
(d) 12 cm
48.In a rhombus if d1 = 16 cm, d2 = 12 cm, its area will be…
(a) 16 × 12 cm²
(b) 96 cm²
(c) 8 × 6 cm²
(d) 144 cm²
49.D and E are respectively the points on the sides AB and AC of a triangle ABC such that AD = 2 cm, BD = 3 cm, BC = 7.5 cm and DE || BC. Then, length of DE (in cm) is
(a) 2.5
(b) 3
(c) 5
(d) 6
50.Area of an equilateral triangle with side length a is equal to:
(a)√3/2a
(b)√3/2a2
(c)√3/4 a2
(d)√3/4 a
• A.6
• B.4
• C.10
• D.5
32.In a triangle ABC, BC || DE If AD = 1.5, DB = 4.5, AE = 1.3, EC = ?
• A.2.6
• B.3.9
• C.3.6
• D.3
33.In triangle DEF, GH is a line parallel to EF cutting DE in G and and DF in H. If DE = 16.5, DH = 5, HF = 6 GE = ?
• A.9
• B.10
• C.7.5
• D.8
34.In triangle ABC, DE || BC, AD = 1.2 cm DB = 3.6 cm, AE = 1.6 cm.What must be the value of EC?
• A.4.8 cm
• B.3.2 cm
• C.6.4 cm
• D.6.0 cm
35.In triangle ABC, DE || BC, AD = 1.2 cm DB = 3.6 cm, AE = 1.6 cm.What must be the value of EC?
• A.4.8 cm
• B.3.2 cm
• C.6.4 cm
• D.6.0 cm
36. D and E are respectively the midpoints on the sides AB and AC of a triangle ABC and BC = 6 cm. If DE || BC, then the length of DE (in cm) is
(A) 2.5
(B) 3
(C) 5
D..3.5 cms
37.11. In the figure given below DE || BC. If AD = x, DB = x – 2, AE = x + 2 and EC = x – 1, the value of x is:
(A)4 (B) 8
(C)16 D) 32
38.In ΔABC, D and E are points on the sides AB and AC respectively such that DE ∥ BC (i) If AD/DB = 3/4 and AC = 15 cm find AE.
A.43/7 b.44/7. C.45/7. D.47/7
39.If AD = 8x −7 , DB = 5x −3 , AE = 4x −3 and EC = 3x −1 find the value of x.
A.1. B.2. C.3. D.4
40..In a given ∆XYZ, the line PQ meeting the sides XY and XZ at P and Q respectively is parallel to YZ. If XP = 6 cm, XQ = 7.5 cm, PY = 2 cm, then find QZ.
A.2.5 b.2.6 c2.7 d.2.8
41. In the figure given below DE ||BC. If AD = x cm, DB = x-2 cm, AE = x +2, and EC = x-1 cm, then find the value of x.
A. 3. B.4 c.5 d.6
42.What line do you need to use the triangle proportionality theorem?
A line parallel to one of the sides of a triangle
B skew line
C perpendicular line
D random line
E.You don't need a line
43.In ∆DEW, AB || EW. If AD = 4 cm, DE = 12 cm and DW = 24 cm, then find the value of DB.
A.8. B.4. C.6. D.2
44.In the given figure, if DE || BC, AE = 8 cm, EC = 2 cm and BC = 6 cm, then find DE.
A.8.2. B.4.8. C.8.4. D.2.4
45. The length of altitude of an equilateral triangle of side 8cm is
(A) √3 cm
(B) 2√3 cm
(C) 3√3 cm
(D) 4√3 cm
46.In a square of side 10 cm, its diagonal = …
(a) 15 cm
(b) 10√2 cm
(c) 20 cm
(d) 12 cm
47.In a rectangle Length = 8 cm, Breadth = 6 cm. Then its diagonal = …
(a) 9 cm
(b) 14 cm
(c) 10 cm
(d) 12 cm
48.In a rhombus if d1 = 16 cm, d2 = 12 cm, its area will be…
(a) 16 × 12 cm²
(b) 96 cm²
(c) 8 × 6 cm²
(d) 144 cm²
49.D and E are respectively the points on the sides AB and AC of a triangle ABC such that AD = 2 cm, BD = 3 cm, BC = 7.5 cm and DE || BC. Then, length of DE (in cm) is
(a) 2.5
(b) 3
(c) 5
(d) 6
50.Area of an equilateral triangle with side length a is equal to:
(a)√3/2a
(b)√3/2a2
(c)√3/4 a2
(d)√3/4 a
10th cvse 20th mcq test is finished
All the best
8th cbse 20th test
1.find a b c d e fq f2 v1 v2 latest rectum in
X^2/25. + y^2/ 16 =1
2.A number is 12 more than the other. Find the numbers if their sum is 48.
3. Twice the number decreased by 22 is 48. Find the number.
4. Seven times the number is 36 less than 10 times the number. Find the number.
5. 4/5 of a number is more than 3/4 of the number by 5 . Find the number.
. The sum of two consecutive even numbers is 38. Find the numbers.
7. The sum of three consecutive odd numbers is 51. Find the numbers.
8. Rene is 6 years older than her younger sister. After 1 0 years, the sum of their ages will be 50 years. Find their present ages.
9. The length of a rectangle is 10 m more than its breadth. If the perimeter of rectangle is 80 m, find the dimensions of the rectangle.
10. A 300 m long wire is used to fence a rectangular plot whose length is twice its width. Find the length and breadth of the plot.
11. The denominator of a fraction is greater than the numerator by 8. If the numerator is increased by 17 and denominator is decreased by 1, the number obtained is 3/2, find the fraction.
12. A sum of $2700 is to be given in the form of 63 prizes. If the prize is of either $100 or $25, find the number of prizes of each type.
13. In a class of 42 students, the number of boys is 2/5 of the girls. Find the number of boys and girls in the class.
14. Among the two supplementary angles, the measure of the larger angle is 36° more than the measure of smaller. Find their measures.
15. My mother is 12 years more than twice my age. After 8 years, my mother’s age will be 20 years less than three times my age. Find my age and my mother’s age.
16. In an isosceles triangle, the base angles are equal and the vertex angle is 80°. Find the measure of the base angles.
17. Adman’s father is 49 years old. He is 5 years older than four times Adman’s age. What is Adman’s age?
18. The cost of a pencil is 25 cents more than the cost of a eraser. If the cost of 8 pencils and 10 erasers is $12.80, find the cost of each.
19. Divide 36 into two parts in such a way that 1/5 of one part is equal to 1/7 of the other.
20. The length of the rectangle exceeds its breadth by 3 cm. If the length and breadth are each increased by 2 cm, then the area of new rectangle will be 70 sq. cm more than that of the given rectangle. Find the length and breadth of the given rectangle.
X^2/25. + y^2/ 16 =1
2.A number is 12 more than the other. Find the numbers if their sum is 48.
3. Twice the number decreased by 22 is 48. Find the number.
4. Seven times the number is 36 less than 10 times the number. Find the number.
5. 4/5 of a number is more than 3/4 of the number by 5 . Find the number.
. The sum of two consecutive even numbers is 38. Find the numbers.
7. The sum of three consecutive odd numbers is 51. Find the numbers.
8. Rene is 6 years older than her younger sister. After 1 0 years, the sum of their ages will be 50 years. Find their present ages.
9. The length of a rectangle is 10 m more than its breadth. If the perimeter of rectangle is 80 m, find the dimensions of the rectangle.
10. A 300 m long wire is used to fence a rectangular plot whose length is twice its width. Find the length and breadth of the plot.
11. The denominator of a fraction is greater than the numerator by 8. If the numerator is increased by 17 and denominator is decreased by 1, the number obtained is 3/2, find the fraction.
12. A sum of $2700 is to be given in the form of 63 prizes. If the prize is of either $100 or $25, find the number of prizes of each type.
13. In a class of 42 students, the number of boys is 2/5 of the girls. Find the number of boys and girls in the class.
14. Among the two supplementary angles, the measure of the larger angle is 36° more than the measure of smaller. Find their measures.
15. My mother is 12 years more than twice my age. After 8 years, my mother’s age will be 20 years less than three times my age. Find my age and my mother’s age.
16. In an isosceles triangle, the base angles are equal and the vertex angle is 80°. Find the measure of the base angles.
17. Adman’s father is 49 years old. He is 5 years older than four times Adman’s age. What is Adman’s age?
18. The cost of a pencil is 25 cents more than the cost of a eraser. If the cost of 8 pencils and 10 erasers is $12.80, find the cost of each.
19. Divide 36 into two parts in such a way that 1/5 of one part is equal to 1/7 of the other.
20. The length of the rectangle exceeds its breadth by 3 cm. If the length and breadth are each increased by 2 cm, then the area of new rectangle will be 70 sq. cm more than that of the given rectangle. Find the length and breadth of the given rectangle.
9th cbse 20th test begins here
1.. A goalkeeper in a game of football pulls his hands backwards after holding the ball shot at the goal. This enables the goalkeeper to:
(a) Exert large force on the ball
(b) Increases the force exerted by the ball on hands
(c) Increase the rate of change of momentum
(d) Decrease the rate of change of momentum
2.2. An object of mass 2 kg is sliding with a constant velocity of 4 m/s on a friction less horizontal table. The force required to keep the object moving with the same velocity is:
(a) 32 N
(b) 0 N
(c) 2 N
(d) 8 N
3.3. Newton’s third law of motion explains the two forces namely ‘action’ and ‘reaction’ coming into action when the two bodies are in contact with each other. These two forces:
(a) Always act on the same body
(b) Always act on the different bodies in opposite directions
(c) Have same magnitude and direction
(d) Acts on either body at normal to each other
4.4. In a rocket, a large volume of gases produced by the combustion of fuel is allowed to escape through its tail nozzle in the downward direction with the tremendous speed and makes the rocket to move upward.Which principle is followed in this take off of the rocket?
(a) Moment of inertia
(b) Conservation of momentum
(c) Newton’s third law of motion
(d) Newton’s law of gravitation
5. A water tank filled upto 2/3 of its height is moving with a uniform speed. On sudden application of the brake, the water in the tank would
(a) Move backward
(b) Move forward
(c) Come to the rest
(e) Be unaffected
6. The seat belts are provided in the cars so that if the car stops suddenly due to an emergency braking, the persons sitting on the front seats are not thrown forward violently and saved from getting injured. Can you guess the law due to which a person falls in forward direction on the sudden stopping of the car?
(a) Newton’s first law of motion
(b) Newton’s second law of motion
(c) Newton’s third law of motion
(d) Newton’s law of gravitation
7. When a balloon held between the hands is pressed, its shape changes. This happens because:
(a) Balanced forces act on the balloon
(b) Unbalanced forces act on the balloon
(c) Frictional forces act on the balloon
(d) Gravitational force acts on the balloon
8. Which of the following situations involves the Newton’s second law of motion?
(a) A force can stop a lighter vehicle as well as a heavier vehicle which are moving
(b) A force exerted by a lighter vehicle on collision with a heavier vehicle results in both the (vehicles coming to a standstill
(c) A force can accelerate a lighter vehicle more easily than a heavier vehicle which are moving
(d) A force exerted by the escaping air from a balloon in the downward direction makes the balloon to go upwards
9. The speed of a car weighing 1500 kg increases from 36 km/h to 72 km/h uniformly. What will be the change in momentum of the car?
(a) 15000 kg km/h
(b) 15000 kg m/s
(c) 54000 kg m/s
(d) 54000 g m/s
10.. A passenger in a moving train tosses a coin which falls behind him. Observing this statement what can you say about the motion of the train?
(a) Accelerated
(b) Retarded
(c) Along circular tracks
(d) Uniform
11.Newton’s first law of motion says that a moving body should continue to move forever , unless some external forces act on it. But a moving cycle comes to rest after some time if we stop pedaling it. Can you choose the correct reason for the stoppage of cycle?
i. Air resistance
ii. Gravitational pull of the earth
iii. Friction of the road
iii. Heat of the environment
Choose the correct option:
(a) (iii) and (iv)
(b) (i) and (iii)
(c) (i) and (ii)
(d) (ii) and (iii)
12.. A man wearing a bullet-proof vest stands on roller skates. The total mass is 80 kg. A bullet of mass 20 g is fired at 400 m/s. It is stopped by the vest and falls to the ground. What is then the velocity of the man?
(a) 1 m/s
(b) 0.1 m/s
(c) 0.01 m/s
(d) 0 m/s
13.The unit of measuring the momentum of a moving body is:
(a) m/s
(b) kg.m/s
(c) kg.m/s2
(d) N m2/kg2
14.The inertia of a moving object depends on:
i. Mass of the object
ii. Momentum of the object
iii. Speed of the object
iv. Shape of the object
Choose the correct option:
(a) (i) and (ii)
(b) only (i)
(c) only (ii)
(d) (iii) and (iv)
15.Which of the following statements is not correct for an object moving along a straight path in an accelerated motion?
(a) Its speed keeps changing
(b) Its velocity always changes
(c) It always goes away from the Earth
(d) A force is always acting on it
16.According to the third law of motion, action and reaction
(a) always act on the same body
(b) always act on different bodies in opposite directions
(c) have same magnitude and directions
(d) act on either body at normal to each other
17.A goalkeeper in a game of football pulls his hands backwards after holding the ball shot at the goal. This enables the goalkeeper to
(a) exert larger force on the ball
(b) reduce the force exerted by the balls on the hands
(c) increase the rate of change of momentum
(d) decrease the rate of change of momentum
18.The inertia of an object tends to cause the object
(a) to increase its speed
(b) to decrease its speed
(c) to resist any change in its state of motion
(d) to decelerate due to friction
19.A passenger in a moving train tosses a coin which falls behind him. It means that motion of the train is
(a) accelerated
(b) uniform
(c) retarded
(d) along circular tracks
20.An object of mass 2 kg is sliding with a constant velocity of 4 ms-1 on a frictionless horizontal table. The force required to keep the object moving with the same velocity is
(a) 32 N
(b) 0 N
(c) 2 N
(d) 8 N
(a) Exert large force on the ball
(b) Increases the force exerted by the ball on hands
(c) Increase the rate of change of momentum
(d) Decrease the rate of change of momentum
2.2. An object of mass 2 kg is sliding with a constant velocity of 4 m/s on a friction less horizontal table. The force required to keep the object moving with the same velocity is:
(a) 32 N
(b) 0 N
(c) 2 N
(d) 8 N
3.3. Newton’s third law of motion explains the two forces namely ‘action’ and ‘reaction’ coming into action when the two bodies are in contact with each other. These two forces:
(a) Always act on the same body
(b) Always act on the different bodies in opposite directions
(c) Have same magnitude and direction
(d) Acts on either body at normal to each other
4.4. In a rocket, a large volume of gases produced by the combustion of fuel is allowed to escape through its tail nozzle in the downward direction with the tremendous speed and makes the rocket to move upward.Which principle is followed in this take off of the rocket?
(a) Moment of inertia
(b) Conservation of momentum
(c) Newton’s third law of motion
(d) Newton’s law of gravitation
5. A water tank filled upto 2/3 of its height is moving with a uniform speed. On sudden application of the brake, the water in the tank would
(a) Move backward
(b) Move forward
(c) Come to the rest
(e) Be unaffected
6. The seat belts are provided in the cars so that if the car stops suddenly due to an emergency braking, the persons sitting on the front seats are not thrown forward violently and saved from getting injured. Can you guess the law due to which a person falls in forward direction on the sudden stopping of the car?
(a) Newton’s first law of motion
(b) Newton’s second law of motion
(c) Newton’s third law of motion
(d) Newton’s law of gravitation
7. When a balloon held between the hands is pressed, its shape changes. This happens because:
(a) Balanced forces act on the balloon
(b) Unbalanced forces act on the balloon
(c) Frictional forces act on the balloon
(d) Gravitational force acts on the balloon
8. Which of the following situations involves the Newton’s second law of motion?
(a) A force can stop a lighter vehicle as well as a heavier vehicle which are moving
(b) A force exerted by a lighter vehicle on collision with a heavier vehicle results in both the (vehicles coming to a standstill
(c) A force can accelerate a lighter vehicle more easily than a heavier vehicle which are moving
(d) A force exerted by the escaping air from a balloon in the downward direction makes the balloon to go upwards
9. The speed of a car weighing 1500 kg increases from 36 km/h to 72 km/h uniformly. What will be the change in momentum of the car?
(a) 15000 kg km/h
(b) 15000 kg m/s
(c) 54000 kg m/s
(d) 54000 g m/s
10.. A passenger in a moving train tosses a coin which falls behind him. Observing this statement what can you say about the motion of the train?
(a) Accelerated
(b) Retarded
(c) Along circular tracks
(d) Uniform
11.Newton’s first law of motion says that a moving body should continue to move forever , unless some external forces act on it. But a moving cycle comes to rest after some time if we stop pedaling it. Can you choose the correct reason for the stoppage of cycle?
i. Air resistance
ii. Gravitational pull of the earth
iii. Friction of the road
iii. Heat of the environment
Choose the correct option:
(a) (iii) and (iv)
(b) (i) and (iii)
(c) (i) and (ii)
(d) (ii) and (iii)
12.. A man wearing a bullet-proof vest stands on roller skates. The total mass is 80 kg. A bullet of mass 20 g is fired at 400 m/s. It is stopped by the vest and falls to the ground. What is then the velocity of the man?
(a) 1 m/s
(b) 0.1 m/s
(c) 0.01 m/s
(d) 0 m/s
13.The unit of measuring the momentum of a moving body is:
(a) m/s
(b) kg.m/s
(c) kg.m/s2
(d) N m2/kg2
14.The inertia of a moving object depends on:
i. Mass of the object
ii. Momentum of the object
iii. Speed of the object
iv. Shape of the object
Choose the correct option:
(a) (i) and (ii)
(b) only (i)
(c) only (ii)
(d) (iii) and (iv)
15.Which of the following statements is not correct for an object moving along a straight path in an accelerated motion?
(a) Its speed keeps changing
(b) Its velocity always changes
(c) It always goes away from the Earth
(d) A force is always acting on it
16.According to the third law of motion, action and reaction
(a) always act on the same body
(b) always act on different bodies in opposite directions
(c) have same magnitude and directions
(d) act on either body at normal to each other
17.A goalkeeper in a game of football pulls his hands backwards after holding the ball shot at the goal. This enables the goalkeeper to
(a) exert larger force on the ball
(b) reduce the force exerted by the balls on the hands
(c) increase the rate of change of momentum
(d) decrease the rate of change of momentum
18.The inertia of an object tends to cause the object
(a) to increase its speed
(b) to decrease its speed
(c) to resist any change in its state of motion
(d) to decelerate due to friction
19.A passenger in a moving train tosses a coin which falls behind him. It means that motion of the train is
(a) accelerated
(b) uniform
(c) retarded
(d) along circular tracks
20.An object of mass 2 kg is sliding with a constant velocity of 4 ms-1 on a frictionless horizontal table. The force required to keep the object moving with the same velocity is
(a) 32 N
(b) 0 N
(c) 2 N
(d) 8 N
21. What is the measure of an angle whose measure is 32° less than its supplement?
a. 148°
b. 60°
c. 74°
d. 55°
22. If the supplement of an angle is 4 times of its compliment, find the angle.
a. 60°
b. 50°
c. 80°
d. 100°
.23. In a right angled triangle where angle A= 90° and AB=AC. What are the values of angle B.
a. 45°
b. 35°
c. 75°
d. 65°
24. What is the supplement of 105°
a. 65°
b. 75°
c. 85°
d. 95°
25. If ∠S and 100° form a linear pair. What is the measure of ∠S
a. 180°
b. 120°
c. 90°
d. 80°
a. 148°
b. 60°
c. 74°
d. 55°
22. If the supplement of an angle is 4 times of its compliment, find the angle.
a. 60°
b. 50°
c. 80°
d. 100°
.23. In a right angled triangle where angle A= 90° and AB=AC. What are the values of angle B.
a. 45°
b. 35°
c. 75°
d. 65°
24. What is the supplement of 105°
a. 65°
b. 75°
c. 85°
d. 95°
25. If ∠S and 100° form a linear pair. What is the measure of ∠S
a. 180°
b. 120°
c. 90°
d. 80°
9th cbse test no 20 finishes here
Test no 19
9th cbse
8th cbse
Test no 19 ends here
Test no 18
10th cbse
9th cbse 18th test
8th cbse test no 18
Test no 18 ended
Test no 17
10th cbse
20 th question
The product of the ages of Alan and Terry is 80 more than the product of their ages 4 years prior. If Alan is 4 years older than Terry, what are their current ages?
9th cbse 17th test
8th cbse 17th test
Test no 16
Test no 16 q0th cbse
1.excrtion in plants
2.ascent of SAP
3.tranlocatiom
4.stomata opening and closing mechanism
5.differences between aerobic and anaerobic respiration
6.photosyntheis with reaction and cross section of leaf diagram
Take 1 as tan 45
Rootb3 as 60
1/root 3as 30
7.convert -1-1i into polar form
8.convert. - of root 3 + 1 i into polar form
9.convert 1-root 3 i into polar form
10.Two pipes working together can fill a tank in 35 minutes. If the large pipe alone can fill the tank in 24 minutes less than the time taken by the smaller pipe then find the time taken by each pipe working alone to fill the tank.
11.Two pipes working together can fill a fish tank in 12 minutes. If one pipe fills the fish tank 10 minutes faster than the second pipe, in what time can the second pipe fill the fish tank alone?
12.4x2 + 4bx – (a2 – b2) = 0
13.16/x – 1 = 15/(x + 1), x ≠ 0, -1
14.
1.excrtion in plants
2.ascent of SAP
3.tranlocatiom
4.stomata opening and closing mechanism
5.differences between aerobic and anaerobic respiration
6.photosyntheis with reaction and cross section of leaf diagram
Take 1 as tan 45
Rootb3 as 60
1/root 3as 30
7.convert -1-1i into polar form
8.convert. - of root 3 + 1 i into polar form
9.convert 1-root 3 i into polar form
10.Two pipes working together can fill a tank in 35 minutes. If the large pipe alone can fill the tank in 24 minutes less than the time taken by the smaller pipe then find the time taken by each pipe working alone to fill the tank.
11.Two pipes working together can fill a fish tank in 12 minutes. If one pipe fills the fish tank 10 minutes faster than the second pipe, in what time can the second pipe fill the fish tank alone?
12.4x2 + 4bx – (a2 – b2) = 0
13.16/x – 1 = 15/(x + 1), x ≠ 0, -1
14.
Test no 16 9th cbse
.Take 1 as tan 45
Rootb3 as 60
1/root 3as 30
1.convert -1-1i into polar form
2.convert. - of root 3 + 1 i into polar form
3..convert 1-root 3 i into polar form
4.derive 2nd equation of motion
Graphically and normally
5.derive 3rd equation of motion graphically and normally
6.derive 4th equation of motion graphically and normally
7.find Distance traveeled by body moving with initial velocity of 10 m/s and accelaration of 4 m/s^2 .in 10 seconds and 10th second
8.find Displacement traveeled by body moving with initial velocity of 20 m/s and accelaration of 6 m/s^2 .in 20seconds and 20 th second
9.find Displacement traveeled by body moving with initial velocity of 30 m/s and accelaration of 8 m/s^2 .in 5 seconds and 5th second
10.find accelaration when body moving with 18kmph attains 36 kmph in 10 min
11.find Distance traveled when a body moving with 18 kmph attains velocity of 36 kmph with accelqration of 10 m/s^2
12.find Distance traveled when a body moving with 36 kmph attains velocity of 54 kmph with accelaration of 20 m/s^2
Test no 16 8th cbse
Take 1 as tan 45
Rootb3 as 60
1/root 3as 30
1.convert -1-1i into polar form
2.convert. - of root 3 + 1 i into polar form
3..convert 1-root 3 i into polar form
4.excplain all points of force
5.find force when 100 gm mass moves with accelaration of 2 m/s^2
6.find force when 60 kgbody moving with 18kmph attains 36 kmph in 1 minute
7.find force when 6000 gms body moving with 36 kmph attains 54 kmph in 1 minute
8.find mass when 200 dymes body moving with 10 m/s^2
9.find accelaration when 100 Newton force applies on 100 gms body
10.find initial and final momentum and change in momentum when 10 kg body moving with q8kmph attains velocity of 72 kmph
11.convert usal form to standard form
234567
12..usual to standard
1234.5678
13.usual to standard
0.0000002345
14.standard to Usual form
1.23456
15.standard to Usual
2.3456x10^5
16.what should be added to -5/6 to make -7/2
17.what shud be subtracted from -3/4 to make -5/6
18.what should be Multiplied to -3/4 to make -7/8
19.what shud be divided with _5/6 to make-3/4
20.what should be added to 3/4 to make -8/6
Test 16 over
All the best
Test nob15
10th class cbse
9th cbse test no 15
1.digewtive system diagram and flow chart
2.reapiratoey system and flow chart
3.heart diagram and flow chart
4.double circulation diagram advantages and Lymph flow chart
5.kidneys diagram and nephron diagram
6.process of urine formation
7.how Excretion occurs in plants explain in points
8.some students planned a picnic.The budget for food was rs 960. But four of them failed to go and thus the cost of food for each friend increased by rs 12. How many friends went to the picnic
9.some students planned a picnic. the total budget for hiring a bus was Rs1440.Later on 8 of these refused to go and instead paid their total share of money towards the fee of one ecnomically weaker student of their class,and thus the cost of each member who went for the picnic increased by Rs30.
)how many students attended the picnic.2)how much money in total was paid towards the fee
10..In a class test, the sum of Shefali’s marks in Mathematics and English is 30. Had she got 2 marks more in Mathematics and 3 marks less in English, the product of her marks would have been 210. Find her marks in two subjects.
11.A toy industry produces a certain number of pottery articles in a day. It was observed on a particular day that the cost of production of each article (in rupees) was 3 more than twice the number of articles produced on that day. If the total cost of production on that day was Rs. 90, findthe number of articles
12.While boarding an aeroplane, a passenger got hurt. The pilot showing promptness and concern, made arrangements to hospitalise the injured and so the plane started late by 30 minutes to reach the destination, 1500 km away, in time, the pilot increased the speed by 100 km/hr. Find the original speed / hour of the plane.
13.train, travelling at a uniform speed for 360 km, would have taken 48 minutes less to travel the same distance if its speed were 5 km/hr more. Find the original speed of the train.
14.A plane left 40 minutes late due to bad weather and in order to reach its destination, 1600 km away in time, it had to increase its speed by 400 km/hr from its usual speed. Find the usual speed of the plane.
15.An aeroplane takes 1 hour less for a journey of 1200 km if its speed is increased by 100 km/hr from its usual speed. Find its usual speed.
16.train travels at a certain average speed for a distance 63 km and then travels a distance of 72 km at an average speed of 6 km/hr more than the original speed. If it takes 3 hours to complete^total journey, what is its original average speed?
17.A train covers a distance of 90 km at a uniform speed. Had the speed been 15 km/hr more, it would have taken 30 minutes less for the journey. Find the original speed of the train.
18.train travels 360 km at a uniform speed. If the speed had been 5 km/hr more, it would have taken 1 hour less for the same journey. Find the speed of the train.
19.An express train takes 1 hour less than a passenger train to travel 132 km between Mysore and Bangalore (without taking into consideration the time they stop at intermediate stations). If the average speed of the express train is 11 km/hr more than that of the passenger train, find the average speeds of the two trains.
20.An aeroplane left 50 minutes later than its scheduled time, and in order to reach the destination, 1250 km away, in time, it had to increase its speed by 250 km/hr from its usual speed. Find its usual speed.
9.some students planned a picnic. the total budget for hiring a bus was Rs1440.Later on 8 of these refused to go and instead paid their total share of money towards the fee of one ecnomically weaker student of their class,and thus the cost of each member who went for the picnic increased by Rs30.
)how many students attended the picnic.2)how much money in total was paid towards the fee
10..In a class test, the sum of Shefali’s marks in Mathematics and English is 30. Had she got 2 marks more in Mathematics and 3 marks less in English, the product of her marks would have been 210. Find her marks in two subjects.
11.A toy industry produces a certain number of pottery articles in a day. It was observed on a particular day that the cost of production of each article (in rupees) was 3 more than twice the number of articles produced on that day. If the total cost of production on that day was Rs. 90, findthe number of articles
12.While boarding an aeroplane, a passenger got hurt. The pilot showing promptness and concern, made arrangements to hospitalise the injured and so the plane started late by 30 minutes to reach the destination, 1500 km away, in time, the pilot increased the speed by 100 km/hr. Find the original speed / hour of the plane.
13.train, travelling at a uniform speed for 360 km, would have taken 48 minutes less to travel the same distance if its speed were 5 km/hr more. Find the original speed of the train.
14.A plane left 40 minutes late due to bad weather and in order to reach its destination, 1600 km away in time, it had to increase its speed by 400 km/hr from its usual speed. Find the usual speed of the plane.
15.An aeroplane takes 1 hour less for a journey of 1200 km if its speed is increased by 100 km/hr from its usual speed. Find its usual speed.
16.train travels at a certain average speed for a distance 63 km and then travels a distance of 72 km at an average speed of 6 km/hr more than the original speed. If it takes 3 hours to complete^total journey, what is its original average speed?
17.A train covers a distance of 90 km at a uniform speed. Had the speed been 15 km/hr more, it would have taken 30 minutes less for the journey. Find the original speed of the train.
18.train travels 360 km at a uniform speed. If the speed had been 5 km/hr more, it would have taken 1 hour less for the same journey. Find the speed of the train.
19.An express train takes 1 hour less than a passenger train to travel 132 km between Mysore and Bangalore (without taking into consideration the time they stop at intermediate stations). If the average speed of the express train is 11 km/hr more than that of the passenger train, find the average speeds of the two trains.
20.An aeroplane left 50 minutes later than its scheduled time, and in order to reach the destination, 1250 km away, in time, it had to increase its speed by 250 km/hr from its usual speed. Find its usual speed.
Test no 13
8th cbse test no 13
9th cbse test no 13
9th cbse test no 13
1. A coin is tossed 150 times and it is found that head comes 1115 times and tail 35 times. If a coin tossed at random, what is the probability of getting
(i) a head (ii) a tail
2. A bag-I contains four cards numbered 1, 3, 5 and 7 respectively. Another bag-II contains here cards numbered 2, 4 and 6 respectively. A card is drawn at random from each bag. Find the probability that the sum of two cards drawn is 9.
3. A bag contains 7 white, 3 red and 4 black balls. A ball drawn at random. Find the probability that it is a red or a black ball.
4. In a single throw of two dice, find the probability of getting a total of 8.
5. One card is drawn from a well-shuffled deck of 52 cards. Find the probability of getting a face card.
6. Two unbiased coins are tossed once. What is the probability of getting exactly one head?
7. What is the probability of a sure event?
8. How many faces a common die has?
9. When a die is thrown once, what can be the greatest possible score?
10. If two dice are thrown together, then what must be the greatest possible score?
11. A box contains 50 bolts and 150 nuts. On checking the box, it was found that half of the bolts and half of the nuts are rusted. If one item is chosen at random, find the probability that it is rusted.
12. The probability of guessing the correct answer to a certain question is x/ 2.If probability of not guessing the correct answer is 2 /3 then find x.
.13. In a survey of 364 children aged 19-36 months, it was found that 91 liked to eat potato chips. If a child is selected at random, compute the probability that he/she does not like to eat potato chips
14. In a sample study of 642 people, it was found that 514 people have a high school certificate. If a person is selected at random, find the probability that the person has a high school certificate.
15. Two coins are tossed simultaneously for 360 times. The number of times ‘2 Tails’ appeared was three times ‘No Tail’ appeared and number of times ‘1 tail’ appeared is double the number of times ‘No Tail’ appeared. Find the probabiliy of getting ‘Two tails’.
16.plasma membrane
17.endoppasmic reticulu.
18.differencea between plants and animal cell
19.find equation of parallel line if equation of one parallel line is 2x+3y+5=0 and coordinates of other line is 6,7
20.find equation of perpendicular line if equation of one line is 2x+3y+5=0 and coordinates of other line is 7,8
1. A coin is tossed 150 times and it is found that head comes 1115 times and tail 35 times. If a coin tossed at random, what is the probability of getting
(i) a head (ii) a tail
2. A bag-I contains four cards numbered 1, 3, 5 and 7 respectively. Another bag-II contains here cards numbered 2, 4 and 6 respectively. A card is drawn at random from each bag. Find the probability that the sum of two cards drawn is 9.
3. A bag contains 7 white, 3 red and 4 black balls. A ball drawn at random. Find the probability that it is a red or a black ball.
4. In a single throw of two dice, find the probability of getting a total of 8.
5. One card is drawn from a well-shuffled deck of 52 cards. Find the probability of getting a face card.
6. Two unbiased coins are tossed once. What is the probability of getting exactly one head?
7. What is the probability of a sure event?
8. How many faces a common die has?
9. When a die is thrown once, what can be the greatest possible score?
10. If two dice are thrown together, then what must be the greatest possible score?
11. A box contains 50 bolts and 150 nuts. On checking the box, it was found that half of the bolts and half of the nuts are rusted. If one item is chosen at random, find the probability that it is rusted.
12. The probability of guessing the correct answer to a certain question is x/ 2.If probability of not guessing the correct answer is 2 /3 then find x.
.13. In a survey of 364 children aged 19-36 months, it was found that 91 liked to eat potato chips. If a child is selected at random, compute the probability that he/she does not like to eat potato chips
14. In a sample study of 642 people, it was found that 514 people have a high school certificate. If a person is selected at random, find the probability that the person has a high school certificate.
15. Two coins are tossed simultaneously for 360 times. The number of times ‘2 Tails’ appeared was three times ‘No Tail’ appeared and number of times ‘1 tail’ appeared is double the number of times ‘No Tail’ appeared. Find the probabiliy of getting ‘Two tails’.
16.plasma membrane
17.endoppasmic reticulu.
18.differencea between plants and animal cell
19.find equation of parallel line if equation of one parallel line is 2x+3y+5=0 and coordinates of other line is 6,7
20.find equation of perpendicular line if equation of one line is 2x+3y+5=0 and coordinates of other line is 7,8
Test no 13 completed
Test no 12
10th cbse test no 12
1.buccal cavity
2.stomach
3.liver
4.lenses ray diagrams
5.mirrors ray diagrams
6.part of monthly Hostel charge is fixed and the remaining depends on the number of days one has taken food in the mess. When Swati takes food for 20 days, she has to pay 13000 as hostel charges whereas, Mansi who takes food for 25 days pays ? 35000 as hostel charges. Find the fixed charges and the cost of food per day.
7.4chairs and 3 tables cost ? 2100 and 5 chairs and 2 tables cost ? 1750. Find the cost of one chair and one table separately
8.two digit number, the digit in the unit place is twice of the digit in the tenth place. If the digits are reversed, the new number is 27 more than the given number. Find the number.
9.owner of a taxi company decides to run all the taxi on CNG fuels instead of petrol/ diesel. The taxi charges in city comprises of fixed charges together with the charge for the distance covered.
For a journey of 13 km, the charge paid is ? 129 and for journey of 22 km, the charge paid is rs 210.
(i) What will a person have to pay for travelling a distance of 32 km?
10.The area of a rectangle reduces by 160 m if its length is increased by 5 m and breadth is reduced by 4 m. However, if length is decreased by 10 m and breadth is increased by 2 m, then its area is decreased by 100 m2. Find the dimensions of the rectangle
11.8 men and 12 boys can finish a piece of work in 10 days, while 6 men and 8 boys can finish it in 14 days. Find the time taken by one man alone and that by one boy alone to finish
12.The age of the father is twice the sum of the ages of his 2 children. After 20 years, his age will be equal to the sum of the ages of his children. Find the age of the father.
13.A and B are 80 km apart from each other on a highway. A car starts from A and another from B at the same time. If they move in same direction they meet in 8 hrs and if they move in opposite directions they meet in 1 hr 20 minutes. Find speeds of the cars.
• 14.Students are made to stand in rows. If one student is extra in a row there would be 2 rows less. If one student is less in a row there would be 3 rows more. Find the number of students in the class.
15. The larger of two supplementary angles exceeds the smaller by 18degrees, find them.
16.A train covered a certain distance at a uniform speed. If the train would have been 6km/hr faster, it would have taken 4hours less than the scheduled time. And if the train were slower by 6km/hr, it would have taken 6 hours more than the scheduled time. Find the distance of the journey.
17.A chemist has one solution which is 50% acid and a second which is 25% acid. How much of each should be mixed to make 10 liters of 40% acid solution.
18.A fraction becomes 9/11 if 2 is added to both the numerator and the denominator. If, 3 is added to both the numerator and the denominator it becomes 5/6. Find the fraction.
19.At a certain time in a deer park, the number of heads and the number of legs of deer and human visitors were counted and it was found there were 39 heads & 132 legs. Find the number of deer and human visitors in the park.
20.Sita Devi wants to make a rectangular pond on the road side for the purpose of providing drinking water for street animals. The area of the pond will be decreased by 3 square feet if its length is decreased by 2 ft. and breadth is increased by 1 ft. Its area will be increased by 4 square feet if the length is increased by 1 ft. and breadth remains same. Find the dimensions of the pond.
All the best
9thclass test no 12
22may 2021
1.Find the area of a triangle whose sides are 3 cm, 4 cm and 5 cm.
2.The area of an equilateral triangle whose side is a cm is root3/4 a^2
Find its height.
3.Find the length of a diagonal of a square whose side is 2 cm.
4. The diagonal of a square is 9 root 2 cms
What is the side?
5.The length of a rectangular plot of land is twice its breadth. If the perimeter of the plot be 180 metres, then find its area. ()
6. The lengths of sides of a triangle are in the ratio 3 : 4 : 5 and its perimeter is 120 cm, find its area.
7 Find the area of a quadrilateral ABCD in which AB = 8 cm, BC = 6 cm, CD = 8 cm, DA = 10 cm and AC = 10 cm.
8. The sides of a triangle are 5 cm, 12 cm and 13 cm. What is its area?
9. What is the area of the given ΔABC? With sides 5 ,5,4 cms
10.The sides of a triangle are in the ratio of 3 : 4 : 5 and its perimeter is 510 m. What is the measure of its greatest side?
11.The perimeter of a right triangle is 30 cm. If its hypotenuse is 13 cm, then what are two sides?
12.golgi apparatus
13.lysosomes
14.mitochondria
15.plastids
16.vacuoles
17.endoplasmic reticulum
18.find area of triangle having coordinates 2,4. 5,6. 7,10 maths iit
19.find area of quadrilateral
2,4. 5,6. 9,10. -2,-4. Maths iit
20.find equation of straight line whose coordinates are 2,5. and 10,11
8th cbse test no 12 may 22. 2021
All the best
Test no 12 completed
Test no 11 10th cbse 50m to 8pm
Write neatly
Send pice neatly
One page one question
If pics not neat I won't correct paper
Q.1. A convex lens of focal length 10 cm is placed at a distance of 12 cm from a wall. How far from the lens should an object be placed so as to form its real image on the wall?
Q.2. If an object of 7 cm height is placed at a distance of 12 cm from a convex lens of focal length 8 cm, find the position, nature and height of the image.
Q.3. An object 4 cm high is placed at a distance of 10cm from a convex lens of focal length 20cm. Find the position, nature and size of the image.
Q.4. A small object is so placed in front of a convex lens of 5 cm focal length that a virtual image is formed at a distance of 25 cm. Find the magnification.
Q.5. Find the position and nature of the image of an object 5 cm high and 10 cm in front of a convex lens of focal length 6 cm.
Q.6. Calculate the focal length of a convex lens, which produces a virtual image at a distance of 50 cm of an object placed 20 cm in front of it.
Q.7. An object is placed at a distance of 100 cm from a converging lens of focal length 40 cm. What is the nature and position of the image?
08..motor boat can travel 30 km upstream and 28 km downstream in 7 hours. It can travel 21 km upstream and return in 5 hours. Find the speed of the boat in still water
09.The sum of the numerator and denominator of a fraction is 4 more than twice the numerator. If the numerator and denominator are increased by 3, they are in the ratio 2 : 3. Determine the fraction (C.B.S.E. 2001C)
10.A two digit number is 4 more than 6 times the sum of its digits. If 18 is subtracted from the number, the digits are reversed. Find the number. (C.B.S.E
11.Lengtgand breadth reduced each by 2 units, the area is reduced by 28 square units. If, however the length is reduced by 1 unit and the breadth increased by 2 units, the area increased by 33 square units. Find the area of the rectangle.
12.The car hire charges in a city comprise of a fixed charges together with the charge for the distance covered. For a journey of 12 km, the charge paid is ₹ 89 and for a journey of 20 km, the charge paid is ₹ 145. What will a person have to pay for travelling a distance of 30 km?
13.2 women and 5 men can together finish a piece of embroidery in 4 days while 3 women and 6 men can finish it in 3 days. Find the time taken by 1 woman alone to finish the embroidery and that taken by 1 man alone.
Solution:
14.A railway half ticket costs half the full fare and the reservation charge is the same on half ticket as on full ticket. One reserved first class ticket from Mumbai to Ahmedabad costs ₹ 216 and one full and one half reserved first class tickets cost ₹ 327. What is the basic first class full fare and what is the reservation charge?
15.A shopkeeper gives books pn rent for reading. She takes a fixed charge for the first two days, and an additional charge for each day thereafter. Latika paid ₹ 22 for a book kept for 6 days, while Anand paid ₹ 16 for the book kept for four days. Find the fixed charges and charge for each extra day. [NCERT
16.The students of a class are made to stand in rows. If 3 student are extra in a row, there would be 1 row less. If 3 students are less in a row there would be 2 rows more. Find the number of students in the class.
17.A sailor goes 8 km downstream in 40 minutes and returns in 1 hour. Determine the speed of the sailor in still water and the speed of the current. (C.B.S.E. 1997)
18.The boat goes 30 km upstream and 44 km downstream in 10 hours. In 13 hours, it can go 40 km upstream and 55 km downstream. Determine the speed of stream and that of the boat in still water.
19.Ramesh travels 760 km to his home partly by train and partly by car. He takes 8 hours if he travels 160 km. by train and the rest by car. He takes 12 minutes more if the travels 240 km by train and the rest by car. Find the speed of the train and car respectively
20.Places A and B are 80 km apart from each other on a highway. A car starts from A and other from B at the same time. If they move in the same direction, they meet in 8 hours and if they move in opposite directions, they meet in 1 hour and 20 minutes. Find the speeds of the cars.
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One page one question
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Q.1. A convex lens of focal length 10 cm is placed at a distance of 12 cm from a wall. How far from the lens should an object be placed so as to form its real image on the wall?
Q.2. If an object of 7 cm height is placed at a distance of 12 cm from a convex lens of focal length 8 cm, find the position, nature and height of the image.
Q.3. An object 4 cm high is placed at a distance of 10cm from a convex lens of focal length 20cm. Find the position, nature and size of the image.
Q.4. A small object is so placed in front of a convex lens of 5 cm focal length that a virtual image is formed at a distance of 25 cm. Find the magnification.
Q.5. Find the position and nature of the image of an object 5 cm high and 10 cm in front of a convex lens of focal length 6 cm.
Q.6. Calculate the focal length of a convex lens, which produces a virtual image at a distance of 50 cm of an object placed 20 cm in front of it.
Q.7. An object is placed at a distance of 100 cm from a converging lens of focal length 40 cm. What is the nature and position of the image?
08..motor boat can travel 30 km upstream and 28 km downstream in 7 hours. It can travel 21 km upstream and return in 5 hours. Find the speed of the boat in still water
09.The sum of the numerator and denominator of a fraction is 4 more than twice the numerator. If the numerator and denominator are increased by 3, they are in the ratio 2 : 3. Determine the fraction (C.B.S.E. 2001C)
10.A two digit number is 4 more than 6 times the sum of its digits. If 18 is subtracted from the number, the digits are reversed. Find the number. (C.B.S.E
11.Lengtgand breadth reduced each by 2 units, the area is reduced by 28 square units. If, however the length is reduced by 1 unit and the breadth increased by 2 units, the area increased by 33 square units. Find the area of the rectangle.
12.The car hire charges in a city comprise of a fixed charges together with the charge for the distance covered. For a journey of 12 km, the charge paid is ₹ 89 and for a journey of 20 km, the charge paid is ₹ 145. What will a person have to pay for travelling a distance of 30 km?
13.2 women and 5 men can together finish a piece of embroidery in 4 days while 3 women and 6 men can finish it in 3 days. Find the time taken by 1 woman alone to finish the embroidery and that taken by 1 man alone.
Solution:
14.A railway half ticket costs half the full fare and the reservation charge is the same on half ticket as on full ticket. One reserved first class ticket from Mumbai to Ahmedabad costs ₹ 216 and one full and one half reserved first class tickets cost ₹ 327. What is the basic first class full fare and what is the reservation charge?
15.A shopkeeper gives books pn rent for reading. She takes a fixed charge for the first two days, and an additional charge for each day thereafter. Latika paid ₹ 22 for a book kept for 6 days, while Anand paid ₹ 16 for the book kept for four days. Find the fixed charges and charge for each extra day. [NCERT
16.The students of a class are made to stand in rows. If 3 student are extra in a row, there would be 1 row less. If 3 students are less in a row there would be 2 rows more. Find the number of students in the class.
17.A sailor goes 8 km downstream in 40 minutes and returns in 1 hour. Determine the speed of the sailor in still water and the speed of the current. (C.B.S.E. 1997)
18.The boat goes 30 km upstream and 44 km downstream in 10 hours. In 13 hours, it can go 40 km upstream and 55 km downstream. Determine the speed of stream and that of the boat in still water.
19.Ramesh travels 760 km to his home partly by train and partly by car. He takes 8 hours if he travels 160 km. by train and the rest by car. He takes 12 minutes more if the travels 240 km by train and the rest by car. Find the speed of the train and car respectively
20.Places A and B are 80 km apart from each other on a highway. A car starts from A and other from B at the same time. If they move in the same direction, they meet in 8 hours and if they move in opposite directions, they meet in 1 hour and 20 minutes. Find the speeds of the cars.
Test no 11 8th class
Write neatly and send neatly
Test nob11
9th cbse
All the best test no 11 ends here
Test no 10 10th class
100 marks 3 hrs
1. Glass slab activity 5marks
2. Prism activity 5 marks
3. The sum of denominator and numerator of a fraction is 3 less than twice the denominator. If each of the numerator and denominator is denominator is decreased by 1, the fraction becomes 1/2. Find the fraction.
4. The sum of the digits of a two digit number is 12. The number obtained by interchanging the two digits exceeds the given number by 18. Find the number. (
5. The sum of the numerator and denominator of a fraction is 12. If 1 is added to both numerator and denominator the fraction becomes �. Find the fraction. (
6. Solve the equations graphically. 2x+y=2 , 2y-x=4. Also find the area of a triangle formed by the two lines and the line y=0.
7. For what value of k will pair of equations have no solution? 3x+y=1 , (2k-1)x+(k-1)y=2k+1
8. Solve the following pair of equations graphically. x+3y=6, 2x-3y=12. Also find the area of the triangle formed by the lines representing the given equations with y-axis.
9.A fraction becomes 9/11 if 2 is added to both the numerator and the denominator. If, 3 is added to both the numerator and the denominator it becomes 5/6. Find the fraction.
10.Five years ago, Nuri was thrice as old as Sonu. Ten years later, Nuri will be twice as old as Sonu. How old are Nuri and Sonu?
11. Ritu can row downstream 20 km in 2 hours, and upstream 4 km in 2 hours. Find her speed of rowing in still water and the speed of the current.
12. A boat is moving at the rate of 5km/h in still water, takes thrice as much as time in going 40 km upstream as in going 40 km downstream. Find the speed of the stream.
13. A number is a two digit number which is three more than 4 times the sum of the digits. If 18 is added to the number, the digits gets opposite. Find the number
14. Solve: 99x + lOly = 499
lOlx + 99y = 501
15.The father’s age is six times his son’s age. Four years hence, the age of the father will be four times his son’s age. The present ages, in years, of the son and the father findtheir ages
16. There are two points on a highway a,b. They are 70 km apart. An auto starts from A and another auto starts from B simultaneously. If they travel in the same direction, they meet in 7 hours, but if they travel towards each other they meet in 1 hour. Find how fast the two autos are.
17.A boat covers 14 kms in upstream and 20 kms downstream in 7 hours. Also it covers 22 kms upstream and 34 kms downstream in 10 hours. Find the speed of the boat in still water and of that the stream.
18.Solve for x and y:
6(ax + by) = 3a + 2b
6(bx – ay) = 3b -2a
19.At a certain time in a zoo, the number of heads and the number of legs of tiger and peacocks were counted and it was found that there were 47 heads and 152 legs. Find the number of tigers and peacocks in the zoo:
Why it is necessary to conserve these animals?
20.Places A and B are 80 km apart from each other on a highway. A car starts from A and another from B at the same time. If they move in same direction they meet in 8 hrs and if they move in opposite directions they meet in 1 hr 20 minutes. Find speeds of the
9th class
8th class test nob10
Test no 10 completed
10th class test no 9
8th class test no 9
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9th class
10th class
8thcbse test no 7
1.typea of crops
2.crop seasons
3.ploughing and leveling
4.find suare of 92 using a+b whole sauce identity
5.fing 98 square using a-b identity
6.find square of 93 using column method
7.fins sqaure of 94 using diagonal method
8.find square of 96 using visual method
9.find square root of 15625 using prime factorisation
10.find square root of 549081 using long division method
11.what should be Multiplied to 16562 to make it perfect square
12.what should be divide tto 2532 to make it perfect square
13.what should be added 44163 to make it perfect square
14.what should be subtracted from 9999 to make it perfect square
15.find square root of 7 upto 3 decimal places
16.find square root of root of 256 /289
17.find square root of value of root of 36/2 if root 2 value is 1.414
18.find the square root of 665.64 by any method
19.find square root of 13.56 using any method upto 3 decimal places
20.find square root of 2184484
9th cbse test no 7
Each question 5 marks
Total 100 marks
1.find moles present in 324 gms of water H20
2.find moles present in 20 gms of NaOH
3.find moles present in 196 gms of H2So4
4.find moles present in 96 gms of methane
CH4
5.find moles present in 11gms of CO2
6.convert 1.234 bar on 234 into p/q form
7.convert 1.234 bar only on 4 into p/q from
8.prove root 3 irrational
9.prove 4root5 -6 irrational
10.draw root 2 root 3 on number line
11.draw root 9.3 on number line with proof
12.denote 3.4567 by succesive magnification
13.insert 5 rationals between 2/3 and 3/4
14.insert 5 irrationals between 2/5 and 6/7
15.insert 5 irrationals between
-2 and -3
16.convert 9.876 bar on only 6 into p/q form
17.draw root 6.3 on number line with proof
18.draw root 5 with proof on number line
19.locate -2/3 on number line
20.locate 25/4on number line
10th class test no 7
1.draw eye
2.write all parts and their functions of eye
3.A 6 cm object is placed perpendicular to the principal axis of a convex lens of focal length 15 cm. The distance of the object from the lens is 10 cm. Find the position, size and nature of the image formed, using the lens formula. Given that f=15cm , u= -10cm , v=?
4A 10 cm tall object is placed perpendicular to the principal axis of a convex lens of focal length 30 cm. The distance of the object from the lens is 20 cm. Find the:
(a)Position
(b)Nature
(c)Size of the image formed.
5.A 5cm tall object is placed perpendicular to the principal axis of a convex lens of focal length 10 cm. The distance of the object from the lens is 15 cm. Find the nature, position and size of the image. Also find its magnification.
6.An object is placed at a distance of 25 cm away from a converging mirror of focal length 20 cm. Discus the effect on the nature and position of the image if the position of the object changes from 25 cm to 15 cm. Justify your answer without using mirror formula.
7.4.5 cm needle is placed 12 cm away from a convex mirror of focal length 15 cm. Give the location of image and magnification. Describe what happens to the image as the needle is moved farther from the mirror.
8. 5 cm tall object is placed perpendicular to the principal axis of a convex lens of focal- length 20 cm. The distance of the object from the lens is 30 cm. Find the:
(i) position
(ii) nature
(iii) size of the image formed
9 A concave lens has focal length of 20 cm. At what distance from the lens a 5 cm tall object be placed so that it forms an image at 15 cm from the lens? Also calculate the size of the image formed.
10.An object 50 cm tall is placed on the principal axis of a convex lens. Its 20 cm tall image is formed on the screen placed at a distance of 10 cm from the lens. Calculate the focal length of the lens
11 solve graphically
8x + 5y = 9
3x + 2y = 4
12. Solve by cross multiplication
y -4x= 1
6x- 5y= 9
13 find a nd b for infinite solutions
2x + 3y = 7
(a – b)x + (a + b)y = 3a + b – 2
14.solve by matrice
8x + 5y = 9
3x + 2y = 4
15.15. Substitution
4/x + 3y = 81.typea of crops
2.crop seasons
3.ploughing and leveling
4.find suare of 92 using a+b whole sauce identity
5.fing 98 square using a-b identity
6.find square of 93 using column method
7.fins sqaure of 94 using diagonal method
8.find square of 96 using visual method
9.find square root of 15625 using prime factorisation
10.find square root of 549081 using long division method
11.what should be Multiplied to 16562 to make it perfect square
12.what should be divide tto 2532 to make it perfect square
13.what should be added 44163 to make it perfect square
14.what should be subtracted from 9999 to make it perfect square
15.find square root of 7 upto 3 decimal places
16.find square root of root of 256 /289
17.find square root of value of root of 36/2 if root 2 value is 1.414
18.find the square root of 665.64 by any method
19.find square root of 13.56 using any method upto 3 decimal places
20.find square root of 2184484
9th cbse test no 7
Each question 5 marks
Total 100 marks
1.find moles present in 324 gms of water H20
2.find moles present in 20 gms of NaOH
3.find moles present in 196 gms of H2So4
4.find moles present in 96 gms of methane
CH4
5.find moles present in 11gms of CO2
6.convert 1.234 bar on 234 into p/q form
7.convert 1.234 bar only on 4 into p/q from
8.prove root 3 irrational
9.prove 4root5 -6 irrational
10.draw root 2 root 3 on number line
11.draw root 9.3 on number line with proof
12.denote 3.4567 by succesive magnification
13.insert 5 rationals between 2/3 and 3/4
14.insert 5 irrationals between 2/5 and 6/7
15.insert 5 irrationals between
-2 and -3
16.convert 9.876 bar on only 6 into p/q form
17.draw root 6.3 on number line with proof
18.draw root 5 with proof on number line
19.locate -2/3 on number line
20.locate 25/4on number line
10th class test no 7
1.draw eye
2.write all parts and their functions of eye
3.A 6 cm object is placed perpendicular to the principal axis of a convex lens of focal length 15 cm. The distance of the object from the lens is 10 cm. Find the position, size and nature of the image formed, using the lens formula. Given that f=15cm , u= -10cm , v=?
4A 10 cm tall object is placed perpendicular to the principal axis of a convex lens of focal length 30 cm. The distance of the object from the lens is 20 cm. Find the:
(a)Position
(b)Nature
(c)Size of the image formed.
5.A 5cm tall object is placed perpendicular to the principal axis of a convex lens of focal length 10 cm. The distance of the object from the lens is 15 cm. Find the nature, position and size of the image. Also find its magnification.
6.An object is placed at a distance of 25 cm away from a converging mirror of focal length 20 cm. Discus the effect on the nature and position of the image if the position of the object changes from 25 cm to 15 cm. Justify your answer without using mirror formula.
7.4.5 cm needle is placed 12 cm away from a convex mirror of focal length 15 cm. Give the location of image and magnification. Describe what happens to the image as the needle is moved farther from the mirror.
8. 5 cm tall object is placed perpendicular to the principal axis of a convex lens of focal- length 20 cm. The distance of the object from the lens is 30 cm. Find the:
(i) position
(ii) nature
(iii) size of the image formed
9 A concave lens has focal length of 20 cm. At what distance from the lens a 5 cm tall object be placed so that it forms an image at 15 cm from the lens? Also calculate the size of the image formed.
10.An object 50 cm tall is placed on the principal axis of a convex lens. Its 20 cm tall image is formed on the screen placed at a distance of 10 cm from the lens. Calculate the focal length of the lens
11 solve graphically
8x + 5y = 9
3x + 2y = 4
12. Solve by cross multiplication
y -4x= 1
6x- 5y= 9
13 find a nd b for infinite solutions
2x + 3y = 7
(a – b)x + (a + b)y = 3a + b – 2
14.solve by matrice
8x + 5y = 9
3x + 2y = 4
15.15. Substitution
6/x - 4y = -5
16. Elimination
3x. - y+7/11 + 2. = 10
2y. + x+11/7 = 10
17. Substitution
O.5x + 0.7y = 0.74
0.3x + 0.5y = 0.5
18.solve graphically
X+2y+1=0
2x-3y-12=0
19. Matrice
3x+2y+25=0
2x+y+10=0
20.cross multiplication
7(y+3)-2(x+2)=14
4(y-2) +3(x-3) = 2
Test no 32 9th cbse
1.write chemical formulas of
Magnesium phosphate
Alluminium sulphate
Ammonium acetate
Ammonium zincate
Barium alluminate
2.wrrite valencies and configurations for atomic number 11 to 20
3.160 gms of sulphur.
Find
no of atoms
No of molecules
Wt of 1 atom
Wt of 1 molecule
Molarity in 200 ml of solution
4.write about plasma membrane
5.write differences between animal and plant cell with respective diagrams
From text book only
Not other figure
6.a solid cylinder of diameter 12 cm and height 15 cms is melted and recanted into a shape of a right circular cone mounted on hemisphere of radius 3cm.if the height of the toy is 12 cm.find the number of toys
7.a cone of maximum size is carved out from a cube of edge 14cm.find the surface areas of the cones and remaining solid left out after the cone is carved out.
8.a cone of radius 4cm is divided into 2 parts by drawing a plane through the mod point of its axis parallel to its base .compare the volumes of two parts
9.a wall of 24m ,0.4 m thick and 6 m high is constructed .how many bricks of dimensions 25cm x 16cm x 10cm are used to construct that wall
10..marbles of diameter 1.4 cm are dropped into a cylindrical beaker of diameter 7cm.containeing some wqter .find the umber of marbles that should be dropped so that water level raises by 5 6 cm
Test no 32 8th class
1.describe briefly about natural resources ,man-made,fuels,fossil fuel
2.explain about coal
3.explain about petroleum
4.if 12 boys earn 840 ts in 7 days.how much will 15 boys earn in 6 days
5.id 25 .en earn 1000rs in 10 days how much will 15 men earn in 15 days
6.if 9 girls can prepare 135 garlands in 3 hrs.how many girls are needed to prepare 270 garlands in 1 hr
7.two taps A and B can take 10 hrs and 15 hrs respectively to fill a cistern alons .both are turned on for 4 hrs and B is turned off .how much time A will take to fill tank remaining
8.A cistern has has two inlets ahich can fill in 12 and 15 hrs respectively and an outlet which can empty in 10 hrs.if all are open how much time it takes to fill the cistern
9.A and B can do peice of work in 6 and 4 days respectively.
A STARTED TO DO work for 2 days then B joined .find the total time takes to complete the work
10.A,B,C can do work togwther in 8 hrs.A alone takes 20 hrs and B alone takes 24 hrs .C alone takes how much time to complete the work
Test no 31 queston papers
Icse
1..an object is placed at a distance of 20 cms in front of concave lens of focal length 20 cms.fond the position and magnification of image
2..a convex lens forms an inverted image of size same as that of an object which is placed at a distance of 60 cms in fro t of lens.find the position of image and focal length of lens
3.at what position handle of length 3cms is placed in front of convex lens so that its image of length 6 macan be obtained on a screenllaced at a distance of 30 cms behind the lens.also find the focal length of lens
4.draw ray diagrams for lenses convex
5.draw 2 ray diagrams for concave
9th cbse
1.find the kinetic energy of body moving from 18kmph to 54kmph whose mass of 200 gms
2.derive kinetic energy equation
3.derive the relation between kinetic energy and momentum
4..find the volume of largest sphere that can be cut out from cube of side 6cms
5.a cylindrical rod whose height is 8 times its radius is melted and made into a sphere of same radius find the number of spheres made
6.if ratio of volumes of two spheres are 1:8.then find the ratio of their surface areas
7.if the surface are of sphere is 144 pi sq mt. then find its volume
8.if a solid sphere of radius 10cms is mounded into 8 spherical solid balls of equal radius then the surface area of each ball is how much.
9..cone ,hemisphere and cylinder of equal bases and qquaal heights .find the ratio of their volumes.
10.derive equation for slope and find the slope of (2,3) and (4,-5)
8th cbse 31st test paper
1.write the properties of plastic
2.find the advantages and disadvantages of plastics
3.what are different kinds if plastics and their uses
4.define flame and write difference between luminous and non luminous flame and zone of flame
5..a motar boat covers downstream in 4 hrs and upstream in 5hrs.if the speed of stream is 3kmph then find the speed if the boat
6.streamer goes down stream in 15hrs and upstream in 20 hrs.if the speed of stream is 3 kmph.then find the speed of the boat
.
7..the distance between two towns is 300kms.two cars simultaneously starts from both towns towarsd each other .the speed if one car is 7 kmph more then the other.after 2 hrs if the distance between them id 34 kms.then find the speeds of both the cars
8.the length of rectangle is greater then its readth by 18cm.if both length and breadth are increased y 6cm then area increase by 168 cm2.find the length and breadth if rectangle
9..length if reeactangle is greater then breadth by 3cm.if length is increased by 9cm and breadth is decreased by 5 cms then area remains same then find the length and breadth
10.derove equation for slope and find the slope of (2,3)(4,-5)
.
Test no 30
Question papers
Sunday november 1st
8th class test paper csa TSA and volumes of cylinders
Test no 30
1.csa of cylinder is 4.4 m2.if the radius is 0.7 m .find the height
2.cylinder if length 28m and diameter 5cm.find the csa
3.a cylindrical pillar in length 50cm and diameter 3.5 m height.fins cost of polishing at the rate of 12.50 rs
4.it is required to make a closed cylindrical tank of height 1m and the base diameter 140 cmf3om a metal sheet .how many square meters of metal sheet is needed to make it
5.find the ration between csa and tsa of cylinder given that height and radius are 7.5 and 3.5m.
6.the pillars if temple are cylindrical in length.if each pillar has radius 20cm.and height 10m.how much concrete mixture is needed to make 14 pillars
7.inner diameter of cylindrical wooden pipe is 24cm.and the outer diameter is 28 cm
If the length if pipe is 35cm.find mass of pipe if 1cc weighs 0 6gms
8.csa of cylinder is 94.2 cm2 and height is 5cm.find. radius,and volume
9.the capacity of closed cylindrical vessel of height 1m is 15.4 litres.how many square meters of metal sheet is needed to make it.
10.hallow garden roller of 63cm widthwitha girth if 430cms is made of 4cm thickiron.find the volume of iron
9th class
test no 30 cones
csa tsa and volumes
1.find the csa of come if slant height is 60 cm and radius is 20cm
2.tha radius of cone is 5cms.and vertical height is 12 cm.find the csa
3.the radius of cone is 7cm.and csa is 176 cm2.find slant height.
4.the height of cone is 21cm.if slant height is 28cms find the area of base of cone
5.find tsa of cone of radius 6cms.and height 8cm.
6.two cones heights in ratio of 1:3 and radii in the ratio of 3:1.find the ratio of their volumes
7.the radius and slant height are in the ratio of 5:12.if volume is 314 cc.fins the slant height and the radius of cone
8.the radius and height in the tailor of 5:12,and volume is 2512cc.finfd slant height and radius of cone
9.the ratio of volumes of two cones are in the ratio of 4:5.and ratio of radius of their bases are in the ratio of 2:3.find the ratio of their vertical heights
10.a cylinder and cone has equal bases radii and equal heights.what is ratio of their volumes
Test no 30
1.csa of cylinder is 4.4 m2.if the radius is 0.7 m .find the height
2.cylinder if length 28m and diameter 5cm.find the csa
3.a cylindrical pillar in length 50cm and diameter 3.5 m height.fins cost of polishing at the rate of 12.50 rs
4.it is required to make a closed cylindrical tank of height 1m and the base diameter 140 cmf3om a metal sheet .how many square meters of metal sheet is needed to make it
5.find the ration between csa and tsa of cylinder given that height and radius are 7.5 and 3.5m.
6.the pillars if temple are cylindrical in length.if each pillar has radius 20cm.and height 10m.how much concrete mixture is needed to make 14 pillars
7.inner diameter of cylindrical wooden pipe is 24cm.and the outer diameter is 28 cm
If the length if pipe is 35cm.find mass of pipe if 1cc weighs 0 6gms
8.csa of cylinder is 94.2 cm2 and height is 5cm.find. radius,and volume
9.the capacity of closed cylindrical vessel of height 1m is 15.4 litres.how many square meters of metal sheet is needed to make it.
10.hallow garden roller of 63cm widthwitha girth if 430cms is made of 4cm thickiron.find the volume of iron
9th class
test no 30 cones
csa tsa and volumes
1.find the csa of come if slant height is 60 cm and radius is 20cm
2.tha radius of cone is 5cms.and vertical height is 12 cm.find the csa
3.the radius of cone is 7cm.and csa is 176 cm2.find slant height.
4.the height of cone is 21cm.if slant height is 28cms find the area of base of cone
5.find tsa of cone of radius 6cms.and height 8cm.
6.two cones heights in ratio of 1:3 and radii in the ratio of 3:1.find the ratio of their volumes
7.the radius and slant height are in the ratio of 5:12.if volume is 314 cc.fins the slant height and the radius of cone
8.the radius and height in the tailor of 5:12,and volume is 2512cc.finfd slant height and radius of cone
9.the ratio of volumes of two cones are in the ratio of 4:5.and ratio of radius of their bases are in the ratio of 2:3.find the ratio of their vertical heights
10.a cylinder and cone has equal bases radii and equal heights.what is ratio of their volumes
no 25 question papers for 10th,9th and 8th
10th cbse
1.why stars twinkle and planets dont
2.whay rainbowboccurs
3.whay sky appears blue whereas sun appears red
4.why early sunrise and delayed sunset occurs
5.determine the ration in which line 2x+y-6=0 divides the line segment joining the points A(2,-2) and B(3,7)
6.find the relation between x and y if the points (x,y),(1,2),and (7,3) are colinear
7.find the centre of circle passing through the points (7,-6),(3,-7) and (3,3)
8.find the ratio in which the y-axis divides the line segment joining the points(6,-6) and (-1,-4).also find the point of intersection
9.find the coordinates of points which divides the line segment joining A(-2,2) and B(4,8) into 4 equal parts
10.fiind the relation between x and y such that points (x,y) is equidistant from the points (8,1) and (-2,5)
9th cbse
1.what are differences between mixture and compound
2.what are differences between metal and non metals
3.what is difference between homogeneous and heterogeneous mixture
4.what are properties of solution and on what factors solubility depends
5.find solubility and mass percentage of 20 gems of solute mixed in 80 gms of solvent
6.
Test
8th cbse
1.what are various endocrine glands another location harmones and their functions
2.explain briefly sex determination in human beings
10th cbse test no 24
8th cbse
9th cbse
8
8th cbse
1.write briefly about female reproductive system
2.explain menstrual cycle
3.explain development of embryo
4.cp of 20 mangoes is equal to sp of 15 mangoes. Find gain percent
5.cp of 20 chairs is equal to sp of 25 chairs.find gain or loss percent
6.cp of article is 200 and expenses on it is 20 rs and sold for 300.find gain and gain percent
7.cp of article is 200 rs and expenses is 50 rs and sold for 150 .find gain or loss percent
8.cp of 2 articles together is 1200.gain percent on one is 10 and loss percent on other is 20.if sp of both is same.find cp of each item
9.if so of article is 500.gain% is 25%.find cp
10.if cp is 25 rs .gain% is 10%.find sp
9th cbse
1.derive 1st equation of motion by defining 1st equation of motion
2.derive 2nd eq of motion
3.derive 3rd eq if motion
4.derive 4th eq of motion
5.explain probabilities of 4 coins tossed
6.explain fundamentqpsbof cards probability
7.find probability of monday in both normal and leap years
8.write all 16 probabilities of playing 2 dice
9.find probability of drawing red ball,white ball,both red and white ball.when 5 red,4 white,and 6 green balls are there in bag
10.if 200 matches are played
120 won,30,loss,50 draw
What is probability of winning ,what is probability of losing,what is probability of draw
10th cbse
1 photosynthesis
2.ascent of SAP and translocation
3.heart diagram
4.nephron diagram
5.steps of formation of urine
Pls see from text book and do the sums
6.text book 6.6 exercise 1st sum
7.2nd sum 1st bit
8.3rd sum
9.4th sum
10.5th sum
1.write briefly about female reproductive system
2.explain menstrual cycle
3.explain development of embryo
4.cp of 20 mangoes is equal to sp of 15 mangoes. Find gain percent
5.cp of 20 chairs is equal to sp of 25 chairs.find gain or loss percent
6.cp of article is 200 and expenses on it is 20 rs and sold for 300.find gain and gain percent
7.cp of article is 200 rs and expenses is 50 rs and sold for 150 .find gain or loss percent
8.cp of 2 articles together is 1200.gain percent on one is 10 and loss percent on other is 20.if sp of both is same.find cp of each item
9.if so of article is 500.gain% is 25%.find cp
10.if cp is 25 rs .gain% is 10%.find sp
9th cbse
1.derive 1st equation of motion by defining 1st equation of motion
2.derive 2nd eq of motion
3.derive 3rd eq if motion
4.derive 4th eq of motion
5.explain probabilities of 4 coins tossed
6.explain fundamentqpsbof cards probability
7.find probability of monday in both normal and leap years
8.write all 16 probabilities of playing 2 dice
9.find probability of drawing red ball,white ball,both red and white ball.when 5 red,4 white,and 6 green balls are there in bag
10.if 200 matches are played
120 won,30,loss,50 draw
What is probability of winning ,what is probability of losing,what is probability of draw
10th cbse
1 photosynthesis
2.ascent of SAP and translocation
3.heart diagram
4.nephron diagram
5.steps of formation of urine
Pls see from text book and do the sums
6.text book 6.6 exercise 1st sum
7.2nd sum 1st bit
8.3rd sum
9.4th sum
10.5th sum
Test no 21bb
10th cbse
9th cbse
8th cbse
10th icse question paper 21st test
10th icse organic chemistry question paper
1.convert methane to carbon tetra chloride
5marks
2.show formation of ethylene to ethylene glycol 5marks
3.draw structure of 3,4,5 tri bromo
hexanol 5 mrks
4.what are differences between saturated and unsaturated hydrocarbons
Write atleast 3 differences 5 mrks
5.how do you convert methane to ethanol acid
Show with steps 5 mrks
1.convert methane to carbon tetra chloride
5marks
2.show formation of ethylene to ethylene glycol 5marks
3.draw structure of 3,4,5 tri bromo
hexanol 5 mrks
4.what are differences between saturated and unsaturated hydrocarbons
Write atleast 3 differences 5 mrks
5.how do you convert methane to ethanol acid
Show with steps 5 mrks
.
Test no 20
10th class question paper
9th class question paper
8th class question paper
9th class test no 19
10th class test no 19
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